Category: MCQs

1.Which of the following best captures the core objective of the BBNJ or High Seas Treaty?

1. To regulate deep-sea mining operations within Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs).
2. To conserve and sustainably use marine biodiversity in areas beyond national jurisdiction.
3. To increase trade-related cooperation between coastal nations.
4. To protect only endangered species within territorial waters.

Answer: B

 

2. Which of the following correctly lists all members of the Gulf Cooperation Council?

1. Saudi Arabia, UAE, Oman, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait
2. Bahrain, Kuwait, Qatar, UAE, Iran, Saudi Arabia
3. Bahrain, UAE, Oman, Qatar, Iraq, Saudi Arabia
4. Oman, Qatar, Jordan, UAE, Bahrain, Kuwait

Answer: A

 

3. Which of the following statements correctly highlights the Maldives’ unique global position regarding tobacco control?

1. It is the first South Asian nation to ban all tobacco imports.
2. It is the first country to make Dhivehi the sole language for tobacco warnings.
3. It is the first country to declare full tobacco-free tourism zones.
4. It is the first country to impose a generational ban on tobacco and vaping.

 Answer: D

 

4. The strategic importance of the Maldives in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR) is primarily due to:

1. Its large naval fleet and military bases.
2. Its position along major maritime trade routes.
3. Its extensive oil reserves.
4. Its status as a global financial hub.

 Answer: B

 

5. Which of the following best describes the genomic nature of the Encephalomyocarditis Virus (EMCV)?

1. Single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the Picornaviridae family.
2. Double-stranded DNA virus belonging to the Herpesviridae family.
3. Double-stranded RNA virus belonging to the Reoviridae family.
4. Single-stranded DNA virus belonging to the Parvoviridae family.

 Answer: A

 

6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Encephalomyocarditis Virus epidemiology?

1. It exclusively infects primates.
2. It affects a wide range of mammalian species.
3. It is restricted to tropical marine ecosystems.
4. It primarily spreads through mosquito vectors.

 Answer: B

 

7. Which statement about the Appellate Tribunal’s legal status is correct?

1. It is a fully judicial body with the same powers as the Supreme Court.
2. It is a quasi-legislative authority issuing policy rules.
3. It is a quasi-judicial body hearing appeals from NCLT and other authorities.
4. It is an executive body enforcing compliance with the Companies Act.

 Answer: C

 

8. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), consider the following statements:

1. It is implemented by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
2. Farmers pay a uniform premium rate of 5% for all food grain and oilseed crops.
3. The scheme was launched to provide financial support to farmers in cases of crop loss due to natural calamities, pests, and diseases.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. One only
2. Two only
3. All
4. None

Answer: B

 

9. Under PMFBY, which of the following premium rates is correctly matched with its crop category?

1. Rabi crops – 2%
2. Kharif crops – 1.5%
3. Annual commercial/horticultural crops – 5%
4. All crops – 3%

 Answer: C

 

10. Consider the following statements regarding Coal India Limited (CIL):

1. It is a Maharatna PSU under the Ministry of Coal.
2. It was established during the period of the Second Five-Year Plan.
3. It accounts for about 80% of India’s domestic coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

 

11. Consider the following statements regarding Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs):

1. A PSU is defined as an enterprise in which the government holds at least 51% equity.
2. All PSUs are established under the Companies Act, 2013.
3. Both Central and State Governments can own PSUs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

12. The North Eastern Science & Technology (NEST) Cluster was inaugurated by which of the following authorities?

1. Union Minister for Education
2. Union Minister for Science and Technology
3. Union Minister for Communications and Development of North Eastern Region
4. Prime Minister of India

 Answer: C

 

13. In 2025, which Biosphere Reserve of India was included in UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves (WNBR)?

1. Simlipal Biosphere Reserve (Odisha)
2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (Uttarakhand)
3. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve (Tamilnadu)
4. Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve (Himachal Pradesh)

 Answer: D

 

14. Consider the following statements about the Torkham border:

1. 1. It serves as a major logistical hub for trade and transport.
2. It is the only land border between Afghanistan and Pakistan.
3. It lies on the international boundary between the two countries.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. One only
2. Two only
3. All
4. None

 Answer: B

 

15. Consider the following features:

•  

1. Provides ₹5 lakh insurance coverage per family per year.
2. Targets vulnerable and economically weaker families.
3. Ensures free secondary and tertiary care hospitalization.

Which of the above features are associated with AB-PMJAY?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

16. The concept of “Blue Cities” is primarily associated with which of the following?

1. Cities located along major river systems promoting inland waterways.
2. Coastal or port cities integrating ocean-based economic activities with sustainable urban development.
3. Cities with high per capita consumption of clean drinking water.
4. Smart cities developed under the Digital India initiative.

Answer: B

 

17. Consider the following statements regarding India’s port infrastructure:

1. Minor ports are controlled by the Central Government.
2. Major ports are under the respective jurisdiction of State Governments.
3. India has 13 major ports and over 200 minor ports.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

 

18. With reference to a Rupee backed Stablecoins, consider the following:

1. It is typically pegged 1:1 to the Indian rupee.
2. It offers the programmability of crypto assets without high volatility.
3. It is primarily designed for speculative investment gains.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

 Answer: B

 

19. With reference to the National Beekeeping and Honey Mission (NBHM), consider the following statements:

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme aimed at promoting scientific beekeeping.
2. It is implemented through the National Bee Board (NBB).
3. It was launched as part of the Sweet Revolution initiative.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

20. Which of the following Indian states share a border with Nepal?

1. Sikkim
2. West Bengal
3. Bihar
4. Uttarakhand
5. Himachal Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 5 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

21. The Kalapani region is located near the trijunction of which of the following?

1. India – Nepal – China
2. India – Nepal – Bhutan
3. India – Bhutan – China
4. India – Nepal – Bangladesh

Answer: A

 

22. Which of the following statements best defines diabetes?

1. A genetic disorder caused by deficiency of red blood cells.
2. A chronic metabolic disorder caused by imbalance in blood pressure.
3. A chronic metabolic disorder where the body cannot produce or properly use insulin.
4. A viral infection affecting glucose absorption.

Answer: C

 

23. In Type 2 Diabetes, the problem primarily arises because:

1. The body produces no insulin at all.
2. The pancreas becomes infected.
3. The immune system attacks the liver.
4. The body produces insufficient insulin or cannot use it effectively.

Answer: D

 

24. Match the following Hepatitis types with their characteristics:

Hepatitis types	Characteristics
a. Hepatitis A	1. Requires Hepatitis B for infection.
b. Hepatitis C	2. Can cause chronic liver cirrhosis and cancer.
c. Hepatitis D	3. Usually mild & self-limiting.
d. Hepatitis E	4. Serious in people with weakened immunity.

Select the correct combination:

1. a–3, b–2, c–1, d–4
2. b) a–4, b–1, c–2, d–3
3. c) a–3, b–1, c–4, d–2
4. d) a–2, b–3, c–1, d–4

Answer: A

 

25. With reference to Rheumatoid Arthritis, which of the following is correct?

1. It usually affects only elderly individuals above 65 years.
2. It commonly affects individuals between 30–60 years.
3. It mostly affects children.
4. It affects men and women equally.

Answer: B

 

26. Rheumatoid Arthritis is considered a systemic disease because:

1. It affects only the bones.
2. It spreads through air.
3. It affects multiple organs including lungs, heart, skin, and eyes.
4. It is always limited to the knees and hands.

Answer: C

 

27. Saranda Forest lies in which bio-geographic zone of India?

1. Western Ghats zone
2. Trans-Himalayan zone
3. Chhotanagpur zone
4. Deccan plateau zone

Answer: C

 

28. Saranda Forest is inhabited mainly by which tribal communities?

1. Bhils and Gonds
2. Ho, Munda, Uraon communities
3. Santhals and Todas
4. Angami and Khasi tribes

Answer: B

 

29. Assertion (A): The FAME India Scheme focuses solely on public transport electrification.

Reason (R): The scheme is implemented under the Ministry of Heavy Industries as part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP).

Select the correct Option:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true, but R is false
4. A is false, but R is true

Answer: D

 

30. Mudh-Nyoma Airbase, recently in focus for its strategic significance, is associated with which of the following statements?

1. It is located in Nyoma, Leh district of Ladakh, at an altitude of around 13,700 feet.
2. Its construction was led by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD).
3. Its location near the Line of Actual Control (LAC) provides India with tactical, logistical, and surveillance advantages in areas such as Depsang Plains, Pangong Tso, and Chushul Valley.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

 

31. Rift Valley Fever (RVF) primarily affects which of the following?

1. Humans only
2. Animals such as sheep, goats, cattle, and camels
3. Birds and reptiles
4. Marine animals

Answer: B

 

32. Consider the following statements regarding molasses and its strategic importance in India:

1. Molasses is a byproduct of sugarcane or sugar beet refining and contains fermentable sugars suitable for industrial fermentation.
2. It is a key raw material for ethanol production under India’s Ethanol Blending Programme, helping reduce crude oil imports.
3. Molasses is primarily used as a direct fuel substitute for thermal power generation due to its high calorific value.
4. It also finds applications in the food industry, animal feed, and industrial production of citric acid and yeast.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

33. Ricin, a highly toxic protein, has raised global security concerns. Consider the following statements:

1. Ricin is extracted from the seeds of the castor bean plant (Ricinus communis) and inhibits protein synthesis in human cells.
2. It is classified under Schedule-1 of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC), which restricts its production and use to research, medical, or protective purposes.
3. Ricin poisoning can be effectively neutralized by common antibiotics if administered immediately after exposure.
4. Exposure to Ricin can be fatal within hours, and there is currently no known antidote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

 

34. Statement 1: The Booker Prize is awarded for fiction published in the United Kingdom and/or Ireland.

Statement 2: David Szalay’s Flesh was eligible for the prize because it was published in the UK or Ireland.

Select the correct options:

1. Both statements 1 and 2 are true, and statement 2 correctly explains statement 1.
2. Both statements 1 and 2 are true, but statement 2 does not explain statement 1.
3. Statement 1 is true, statement 2 is false.
4. Statement 1 is false, statement 2 is true.

 Answer: A

 

35. Consider the following statements regarding the demonetisation announced in India on November 8, 2016:

Statement 1: The demonetisation rendered Rs 500 and Rs 1,000 notes, which accounted for about 86% of currency in circulation, invalid as legal tender.

Statement 2: The objectives of the 2016 demonetisation included eliminating black money, curbing counterfeit currency, promoting digital payments, and formalising the economy.

Statement 3: Demonetisation directly resulted in the complete eradication of black money from the Indian economy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Options:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

 Answer: A

 

36. With reference to India’s Aditya-L1 mission, consider the following statements:

1. Aditya-L1 is India’s first space-based solar observatory.
2. The spacecraft will be placed in a halo orbit around the Lagrange Point 1 (L1), approximately 1.5 million km from Earth.
3. The mission involves sending the spacecraft directly to the Sun to study its surface and corona.
4. The placement at L1 allows continuous observation of the Sun even during solar eclipses.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Options:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2, and 4 only
3. 1, 3, and 4 only
4. All of the above

Answer: B

 

37. Consider the following products and their GI tag states:

List I (Products)	List II (States/UTs)
a. Kannadippaya	Tamil Nadu
b. Apatani textile	2. Arunachal Pradesh
c. Marthandam honey	3. Kerala
d. Lepcha Tungbuk	4. Assam
e. Bodo Aronai	5. Sikkim

 Select the correct pairs:

Options:

1. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-5, e-4
2. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-5, e-4
3. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4, e-5
4. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-5, e-4

Answer: A

 

38. According to the Climate Risk Index (CRI) 2026 released by Germanwatch, what was India’s ranking among countries most affected by extreme weather events between 1995 and 2024?

1. 5th
2. 7th
3. 9th
4. 11th

Answer: C

 

39. Project Cheetah, aimed at reintroducing the cheetah in India, is implemented by which of the following?

1. Wildlife Institute of India
2. National Tiger Conservation Authority
3. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
4. Zoological Survey of India

Answer: B

 

40. Which of the following statements about cheetahs is/are correct?

1. Cheetahs are the fastest mammals in the world.
2. Cheetahs are the only large carnivore that went extinct in India.
3. Cheetahs can roar like lions.
4. African cheetah is Vulnerable, and Asiatic cheetah is Critically Endangered.

Select the correct options:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A

 

41. Which of the following are major bilateral projects launched by India in Bhutan?

1. Punatsangchhu and Mangdechhu Hydro Projects
2. Ground Earth Station of ISRO
3. RuPay Card
4. National Knowledge Network of India

Select the correct options:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2, and 3 only
3. 1, 2, 3, and 4
4. 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer: C

 

42. The ‘Delhi Declaration 2025’ was adopted by which of the following organizations?

1. Reserve Bank of India
2. National Federation of Urban Cooperative Banks and Credit Societies
3. Securities and Exchange Board of India
4. Small Industries Development Bank of India

Answer: B

 

43. Which of the following is/are characteristics of Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs)?

1. They primarily serve rural populations.
2. They operate on principles of cooperation, democratic decision-making, and open membership.
3. They offer deposits, loans, and credit facilities to small businesses and salaried individuals.

Select the correct options:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

 

44. Bioremediation is distinct from other remediation methods because it:

1. Relies on microorganisms to degrade or transform pollutants.
2. Uses only mechanical separation techniques.
3. Is used only for treating plastic waste.
4. Involves the incineration of contaminated soil.

Answer: A

 

45. The Dumpsite Remediation Accelerator Programme (DRAP) contributes directly to which national target?

1. Achieving 100% urban waste segregation by 2025
2. Achieving net-zero emissions by 2070
3. Doubling recycling capacity by 2030
4. Achieving “Lakshya Zero Dumpsites” by September 2026

Answer: D

 

46. “Megachile (Hackeriapis) lucifer,” recently in news, belongs to which group of organisms?

1. Amphibians
2. Bee species
3. Marine crustaceans
4. Freshwater molluscs

Answer: B

 

47. Which of the following correctly distinguishes the LVM3’s suitability for the Gaganyaan Mission?

1. It is India’s only rocket equipped with strap-on boosters
2. It is the only Indian launch vehicle capable of placing 4-tonne payloads into Geostationary Transfer Orbit, making it apt for human-rating after modifications
3. It uses a solar-electric propulsion stage adapted for crewed missions
4. It was originally developed as a reusable orbital class rocket

Answer: B

 

48. Assertion (A): The cryosphere is considered a critical component of the global climate system.

Reason (R): Frozen surfaces have a high albedo, reflecting a significant portion of solar radiation back into space.

1. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct, but R is incorrect
4. A is incorrect, but R is correct

Answer: A

 

49. With reference to the National Water Awards, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to reward exemplary efforts in water conservation and efficient water resource management.
2. They promote the government’s vision of ‘Jal Samridh Bharat’.
3. Maharashtra received the first prize in the Best State category. Gujarat and Haryana secured the second and third positions respectively.
4. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs administers these awards.

How many of the above statements is/ are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Answer: C

 

50. Assertion (A): Hydrogen is considered an important future energy carrier.

Reason (R): It is the lightest, most abundant, and highly combustible chemical element in the universe.

1. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct, but R is incorrect
4. A is incorrect, but R is correct

Answer: B

 

51. With reference to the global cryosphere, consider the following statements:

1. It is restricted only to the polar regions of the Earth.
2. Icebergs are considered part of the cryosphere.
3. Permafrost refers to ground that remains frozen for more than two consecutive years.
4. Seasonal lake and river ice are excluded from the cryosphere.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Answer: B

 

52. With reference to the FGM-148 Javelin system, consider the following statements:

1. It uses an infrared imaging seeker that enables a true “fire-and-forget” capability.
2. It is capable of top-attack as well as direct-attack modes against armoured targets.
3. It requires continuous guidance by the operator until the missile strikes the target.
4. It is a single man-portable anti-tank guided missile system with medium-range strike capability.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

53. ORS (Oral Rehydration Salts) is primarily used for which of the following?

1. Treatment of chronic kidney disorders.
2. Prevention and treatment of dehydration due to acute diarrhoea.
3. Management of hypertension in children.
4. Treatment of malaria-induced dehydration.

Answer: B

 

54. With reference to the Joint Crediting Mechanism (JCM), consider the following statements:

1. It is a bilateral carbon market framework initiated by Japan.
2. Under the JCM, carbon credits generated in partner countries can be used only by Japan.
3. The JCM supports deployment of low-carbon technologies through technology transfer and financing.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

55. With reference to Acanthosis Nigricans (AN), consider the following statements:

1. It is characterised by dark, velvety skin patches typically found in body folds.
2. The condition appears suddenly within hours or days, indicating acute hormonal imbalance.
3. It is strongly associated with insulin resistance and can serve as an early indicator of prediabetes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

 

56. With reference to the India International Trade Fair (IITF), consider the following statements:

1. It is organised annually by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
2. It is held every year at Pragati Maidan, New Delhi.
3. The first edition of the IITF was launched in 1990.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

57. Assertion (A): Methane is classified as a short-lived climate pollutant.

Reason (R): Its atmospheric lifetime is about 12 years, which is significantly shorter compared to CO₂.

Choose the correct option:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

 

58. Match the following global sectors with their approximate share of methane emissions:

List I (Sector)	List II (Contribution)
1. Agriculture	a. 35%
2. Energy	b. 20%
3. Waste	c. 40%

Select the correct matching combination:

1. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
2. 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
3. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
4. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

Answer: A

 

59. With reference to the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC), consider the following statements:

1. It was jointly established by FAO and WHO to protect consumer health and ensure fair practices in food trade.
2. It has a total membership of 189, including the European Union.
3. Its sessions are held once every two years, alternating between Rome and Geneva.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

60. With reference to Water Budgeting, consider the following:

1. It accounts for ecological water requirements.
2. It is mandated only in drought-prone districts of India.
3. It helps identify gaps between water supply and demand.
4. It contributes to improving groundwater recharge only.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 2 and 4
2. 1, 2, and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 and 4

Answer: C

 

61. Consider the following statements regarding the Indira Gandhi Peace Prize:

1. It is awarded by the Government of India through the Ministry of External Affairs.
2. It recognizes contributions to peace, disarmament, and development.
3. Michelle Bachelet is the 2024 recipient of the prize.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

62. Consider the following statements regarding the National Action Plan on AMR 2.0 (2025–29):

1. It seeks to strengthen AMR surveillance systems and laboratory capacity across India.
2. It places greater emphasis on engaging the private sector compared to NAP-AMR 1.0.
3. One of its objectives is to expand public awareness and improve regulatory frameworks on antimicrobial use.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

63. Consider the following statements regarding the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:

1. The right to food under NFSA is explicitly listed as a Fundamental Right in the Constitution.
2. Under the Act, Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) households are entitled to 35 kg of foodgrains per month.
3. The coverage ratio is uniform for rural and urban populations, with 70% each.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

64. Consider the following statements regarding the YUVA AI for ALL initiative:

1. It is launched by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) under the IndiaAI Mission.
2. It is a mandatory certification course for all government employees.
3. It aims to impart foundational AI skills to 1 crore citizens across India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

65. Which of the following best describes the primary aim of the Hanoi Convention?

1. To set global standards for data protection and privacy across international borders.
2. To establish a global framework enabling investigation and prosecution of cybercrimes through enhanced international cooperation.
3. To promote digital trade and e-commerce cooperation among UN member states.
4. To create a global regulatory body to oversee cyber activities of private technology firms.

Answer: B

 

66. Under the PPV&FRA Act, which of the following is NOT a category of plant varieties eligible for registration?

1. New variety
2. Essentially derived variety
3. GM variety approved by GEAC
4. Extant variety

Answer: C

 

67. Consider the following statements regarding Dugong Conservation in India:

1. India’s first Dugong Conservation Reserve is located in the Palk Bay region of Tamil Nadu.
2. Dugong is listed as Vulnerable under the IUCN Red List.
3. Dugong is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

68. Which of the following threats are major causes of dugong decline in India?

1. Loss of seagrass habitats.
2. Accidental bycatch in fishing nets.
3. Underwater noise pollution from offshore wind farms.
4. Illegal hunting.

Select the correct answer:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

69. Consider the following statements regarding LeadIT:

1. It was launched at the 2019 UN Climate Action Summit by India, Sweden, and the World Economic Forum.
2. It focuses on accelerating industrial transition in hard-to-abate sectors toward net-zero by 2050.
3. LeadIT is the first global initiative completely dedicated to decarbonising the power sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

70. Assertion (A): CRISPR-Cas9 is considered revolutionary for gene therapy and agricultural biotechnology.

Reason (R): It allows highly targeted and precise modification of DNA sequences at specific genome locations.

Choose the correct option:

1. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. A is correct, but R is incorrect
4. A is incorrect, but R is correct

Answer: A

 

71. Consider the following pairs of International Protocols and their functions:

Protocol	Function
1. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety	Regulates transboundary movement of LMOs/GMOs
2. Nagoya Protocol	Ensures access and benefit-sharing of genetic resources
3. Nagoya–Kuala Lumpur Supplementary Protocol	Liability and redress for damage from LMOs

 Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

72. Consider the following statements about Chittaranjan Das:

1. He earned the title Deshbandhu for his role in defending freedom fighters in the Alipore Bomb Case.
2. He withdrew from legal practice after defending Aurobindo Ghosh and fully devoted himself to the national movement.
3. He resigned from the Indian National Congress to form the Swaraj Party in 1923.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

73. With reference to the key sectoral focus of the India Development and Strategic Fund (IDSF), which of the following are included?

1. Logistics and industrial corridors
2. Education and skilling
3. Defence acquisitions
4. MSME scale-up

Select the correct answer:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

1. Which of the following can be considered as “sunrise domains” targeted under the Research Development and Innovation (RDI) Scheme Fund?
2. Artificial Intelligence
3. Quantum technologies
4. Green hydrogen
5. Blockchain-based governance solutions

Select the correct answer:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

 

75. With reference to the Rowmari–Donduwa Wetland Complex, consider the following statements:

1. It lies within the Laokhowa Wildlife Sanctuary, which forms part of the Kaziranga Tiger Reserve.
2. It serves as a key ecological corridor connecting Kaziranga Tiger Reserve with Nameri Tiger Reserve.
3. It records more bird species annually than Assam’s Deepor Beel and Manipur’s Loktak Lake.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

76. With reference to the Kannada Rajyotsava Award, consider the following statements:

1. It was instituted to commemorate the formation of Karnataka following the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
2. It is awarded only to individuals and not to organisations.
3. It is the second-highest civilian award given by the Government of Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

77. Match the following Karnataka State Film Lifetime Achievement awards with their 2024–25 awardees correctly:

List I (Award)	List II (Awardee)
a. Dr. Rajkumar Award	1. Richard Castelino
b. Puttanna Kanagal Award	2. Umashree
c. Dr. Vishnuvardhan Award	3. N. R. Nanjunde Gowda

 Select the correct option:

1. a-2, b-3, c-1
2. a-3, b-1, c-2
3. a-1, b-2, c-3
4. a-2, b-1, c-3

Answer: A

 

78. Consider the following statements regarding the HortiRoad2India initiative:

1. It is a bilateral government-to-government programme solely between India’s Ministry of Agriculture and the Netherlands’ Ministry of Foreign Affairs.
2. It aims to accelerate modern horticulture through greenhouse and controlled-environment technologies supported by Dutch expertise.
3. Its pilot projects in India are expected to be fully operational by the end of 2026.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

 

79. Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka’s recognition at Windergy India 2025:

1. Karnataka received the national award for achieving the highest installed wind capacity in India for 2024–25.
2. The award was presented during the seventh edition of Windergy India, held in Chennai.
3. Officials from Karnataka Renewable Energy Development Limited (KREDL) received the award.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

80. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka State Skill Development Policy 2025–32:

1. The policy targets skilling 3 million youth by the year 2032.
2. It includes a goal to raise women’s enrolment in ITIs to one-third of total enrolment.
3. It proposes restricting international mobility programmes under IMC-K to only Gulf countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

81. With reference to the ‘MUTS Sahayak’ scheme recently launched in India, consider the following statements:

1. It has been launched by the South Western Railway (SWR).
2. It enables issuance of unreserved tickets through handheld devices.
3. SWR is the second railway zone in India to introduce such a scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

 

82. Which river’s mouth hosts the proposed Honnavar deep-water port?

1. Netravati River
2. Kali River
3. Sharavathi River
4. Aghanashini River

Answer: C

 

83. With reference to the recently launched ‘Cobra Beat’ system, consider the following statements:

1. It has been introduced by the Bengaluru Traffic Police.
2. It aims to address micro-level, location-specific causes of traffic congestion.
3. It is a drone-based monitoring system for real-time traffic surveillance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

84. With reference to the ‘Lakshya’ rocket, consider the following statements:

1. It was developed by R.V. College of Engineering (RVCE).
2. It won the IN-SPACe Model Rocketry Competition 2024–25.
3. The competition required launching a model rocket carrying a 2-kg CANSAT to an altitude of 2,000 metres.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

 

85. With reference to the Chief Minister’s Kaushalya Karnataka Yojane (CMKKY), consider the following statements:

1. The scheme aims to skill 5 lakh youth annually in Karnataka.
2. All beneficiaries are trained solely through the Department of Skill Development, Entrepreneurship and Livelihood (SDEL).
3. Half of the targeted youth are trained through schemes implemented by other government departments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

86. With reference to the Bengaluru Skill Summit 2025, consider the following statements:

1. It is Karnataka’s flagship annual event on workforce transformation.
2. It was jointly organized by SDEL, KSDC, the Agriculture Department, and the Karnataka Digital Economy Mission.
3. The summit’s theme was “Workforce 2030: Skills for Global Mobility.”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

 

87. With reference to the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane, consider the following statements:

1. It is the minimum price that sugar mills are legally bound to pay farmers for sugarcane procured.
2. It is fixed by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
3. FRP is governed under the Sugarcane Control Order, 1966.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

 

88. Which of the following crops are classified as commercial crops under MSP?

1. Sugarcane and Cotton
2. Jute and Copra
3. Tur and Gram
4. Ragi and Nigerseed

Answer: B

 

89. With reference to the Karnataka Startup Policy 2025–30, consider the following statements:

1. The policy aims to establish 25,000 new startups over five years.
2. At least 10,000 of these startups are targeted to be set up outside Bengaluru.
3. The policy was approved by the Union Cabinet as part of the Digital India Mission.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

90. The Resource Mobilisation Committee (RMC) was headed by:

1. Nandan Nilekani
2. K.P. Krishnan
3. Amitabh Kant
4. S. Venkitaramanan

Answer: B

 

91. The theme of Krishi Mela 2025 is:

1. “Digital Farming for Future India”.
2. “Smart Farmers – Smart Nation”.
3. “Prosperous Agriculture – Viksit Bharat: Soil, Water, and Crop”.
4. “Green Revolution 2.0”.

Answer: C

 

92. With reference to the Domestic Workers (Social Security and Welfare) Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:

1. The Bill proposes a mandatory contributory framework in which domestic workers and employers must register under the State system.
2. The welfare fee to be contributed by employers is capped at 5% of the wages payable to the domestic worker.
3. The Bill mandates that all contributions to the welfare fund must be routed only through digital transactions.

How many of the above statements is/ are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Answer: C

 

93. The high-powered committee constituted by the Karnataka Government to review prison functioning was headed by:

1. Sandeep Patil
2. Hitendra
3. Amarnath Reddy
4. Rishyanth

Answer: B

 

94. Karnataka recorded what percentage reduction in maternal deaths from January to October 2025 compared to 2024?

1. 10%
2. 18%
3. 24%
4. 30%

Answer: C

 

95. Which administration launched the Koti Vruksha Abhiyan in Vijayapura district?

1. State Forest Department only
2. District Administration
3. Ministry of Environment, Government of India
4. Panchayat Raj Institutions

Answer: B

 

96. Which department has established the Kalaloka store?

1. Department of Tourism
2. Department of Industries
3. Karnataka Handloom Development Department
4. Ministry of Commerce, Government of India

Answer: B

 

97. Karnataka ranks which position in India in terms of adoption numbers?

1. First
2. Second
3. Third
4. Fourth

Answer: D

 

98. Consider the following statements about the Bengaluru Safe City Project:

1. It is a technology-driven initiative under the Ministry of Home Affairs funded entirely by the State Government.
2. The project integrates fixed, high-resolution, Pan-Tilt-Zoom cameras, drones, and body-worn cameras to enhance urban safety.
3. The emergency response system includes dedicated police vehicles and forensic vans linked with command centers.
4. The project primarily focuses on traffic management and municipal services.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. All four statements

Answer: A

 

1. Consider the following statements about KEO (Knowledge-driven, Economical, Open-source):
2. KEO is an AI-ready personal computer developed by the Karnataka government in collaboration with KEONICS.
3. It is built on an open-source RISC-V processor and a Linux-based operating system.
4. KEO requires constant internet connectivity to run AI applications.
5. It comes pre-loaded with BUDDH, an AI agent trained on the Karnataka DSERT syllabus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. All four statements

Answer: A

 

100. The training for teachers under the Digital Nagarik programme is conducted through:

1. NISHTHA portal
2. DIKSHA portal
3. DISHA portal
4. SWAYAM portal

Answer: C

Karnataka Issues based MCQ’S

1. Which of the following combinations correctly matches the leadership positions in the GBA?

A. Chairperson – Chief Commissioner; Vice-Chairperson – Chief Minister

B. Chairperson – Minister for Bengaluru Development; Member Secretary – Chief Minister

C. Chairperson – Chief Minister; Vice-Chairperson – Minister for Bengaluru Development; Member Secretary – Chief Commissioner

D. Chairperson – Governor of Karnataka; Vice-Chairperson – Chief Minister

Answer: C

 

      2. Which key initiative under the Karnataka Cybersecurity Policy 2024 aims to strengthen the State’s cyber defense?

A. Launch of the Cyber Command Center in Bengaluru. 

B. Establishment of Cyber Volunteer Network.

C. Creation of District-Level Cyber Cells.

D. Partnership with CERT-In for joint investigations.

Answer: A

 

3. As per NCRB report, which State ranked second after Karnataka in the number of cybercrime cases in 2023?

A. Maharashtra

B. Telangana

C. Uttar Pradesh

D. Tamil Nadu

Answer: B

 

4. Which of the following tiger reserves or sanctuaries does NOT share a boundary with the Malai Mahadeshwara Wildlife Sanctuary?

1. Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve
2. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
3. Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Nagarhole Tiger Reserve

Answer: D

 

5. Which two rivers bound the Male Mahadeshwara Hills region?

1. Krishna and Tungabhadra
2. Kaveri and Palar
3. Hemavathi and Kabini
4. Pennar and Bhavani

Answer: B

 

6. With reference to the Shakti Scheme launched by the Government of Karnataka, consider the following statements:

1. It provides free bus travel to all women residents of Karnataka, including transgender women.

2. The scheme applies to both intra-state and inter-state routes operated by KSRTC.

3. Premium services such as Airavat and Vayu Vajra are excluded from the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

7. According to recent data of “Road Accidents in India” report, Bengaluru was ranked among the top five cities in India with the highest increase in road accidents. Which of the following cities recorded a higher percentage increase than Bengaluru?

1. Ranchi

2. Varanasi

3. Pune

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

 

8. What is the primary objective of deploying “COBRA patrol” vehicles by Bengaluru’s traffic police?

1. To escort VIP convoys and monitor high-speed corridors.
2. To provide 24/7 motorcycle-based first response for accidents and traffic emergencies.
3. To monitor emission control and vehicle fitness compliance.
4. To deliver on-the-spot fine collection and challan services.

 Answer: B

 

9. With reference to Karnataka’s “Namma Raste Namma Surakshite” Safe-A-Thon initiative, consider the following statements:

1. It is an awareness programme led by the Traffic Department.

2. It engages citizens through marathons, walkathons, and cyclothons to promote road safety habits.

3. It focuses exclusively on school-level safety education.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: B

 

10. Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka’s partnership with the SaveLIFE Foundation:

1. It aims to implement the Zero Fatality District (ZFD) programme in high-fatality districts.

2. It focuses on data-driven interventions combining engineering, enforcement, and emergency care.

3. It is limited to the Bengaluru-Mysuru Expressway corridor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

11. With reference to the ‘AdvantAge60: Powering Aspirations’ campaign, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to promote pension schemes for senior citizens.

2. The campaign aims to promote a positive view of aging and empower individuals over 60 to lead active and dignified lives by countering ageist stereotypes and project aging as a period of strength and aspiration.

3. It was launched on the occasion of the International Day of Older Persons 2025 with a theme of “Powering Aspirations – Active, Enabled & Empowered”.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

12. Which of the following combinations is correctly matched regarding the Karnataka State Film Awards 2021?

Category	Winner
Best Film award	777 Charlie
2.Best Supporting Actress	Umashree
3.Best Popular Entertaining Film	Yuvarathnaa
4.Best Children’s Film	Cake
5.Best Regional Language Film	Nada Peda Asha

 Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. All are correct

Answer: B

 

13. Which of the following institutions are collaborating on the Karnataka Water Security and Resilience Project (Bengaluru), which is funded by World Bank?

1. Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru (IISc) and Indian Institute of Technology, Madras (IIT-M)
2. Karnataka State Natural Disaster Monitoring Centre (KSNDMC)
3. Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
4. Greater Bengaluru Authority
5. Bengaluru Water Supply and Sewerage Board
6. State Revenue Department is the implementing body.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
3. 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
4. 1,2, 3, 5 and 6 only

Answer: B

 

14. Which of the following statements about the Neeriddare Nale scheme is correct?

1. It focuses on creating public awareness about water conservation.

2. It seeks to involve citizens in groundwater management.

3. It is implemented by the Karnataka Urban Water Supply Board.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

15. According to recent reports, Bengaluru ranks among the top five cities globally in which of the following domains?

1. Renewable energy innovation
2. Artificial Intelligence (AI) skill penetration and R&D output
3. Biotechnology start-ups
4. Clean mobility infrastructure

Answer: B

 

16. Which of the following statements best reflects Karnataka’s contribution to India’s digital and innovation economy?

1. Karnataka houses 40% of India’s R&D talent.

2. About 30% of India’s Global Capability Centres (GCCs) are located in Karnataka.

3. The state hosts nearly 48 of India’s 110 unicorns.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

17. Consider the following statements regarding the Jayaprakash Narayan Award 2025:

1. The award is conferred by the Bharata Yatra Kendra, an organization.
2. The 2025 recipient, Y.S.V. Datta, is a former MLA known for his contributions to rural governance reforms.
3. The selection committee for the award included B.L. Shankar and B.R. Patil.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

18. Consider the following statements about the Karnataka Menstrual Leave Policy – 2025:

 

1. Karnataka became the first Indian State to implement menstrual leave in both government and private sectors.
2. The policy provides up to 15 days of paid menstrual leave annually for women employees.
3. The Dr. Sapna S. Committee was constituted to study and recommend this policy framework.
4. Bihar and Odisha have menstrual leave provisions exclusively for government employees.
5. Kerala has implemented menstrual leave in universities but not for all government employees.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

Answer: A

 

19. Match the following Dams with their Locations:

Dams/ Reservoirs	Location
A. Almatti Dam	1. Gorur, Hassan district
B. Kabini Reservoir	2. Heggadadevanakote, Mysuru
C. Hemavathi Reservoir	3. Nidagundi, Vijayapura
D. Vani Vilasa Sagara	4. Marikanive, Chitradurga

Select the correct code:

1. A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
2. A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4
3. A–1, B–3, C–2, D–4
4. A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1

Answer: B) A–3, B–2, C–1, D–4

 

20. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka Information Commission (KIC):

1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 243 of the Constitution of India.

2. The KIC is constituted under the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005.

3. Members of the Commission are appointed by the Governor of Karnataka on the recommendation of a selection committee chaired by the Chief Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

21. Which of the following individuals were finalised by the Karnataka Government in 2025 for appointment as State Information Commissioners?

1. Richard Vincent D’Souza
2. Venkat Singh
3. Mahesh Valvekar
4. K. Sudhakar

Select the correct code:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

22. Consider the following statements regarding the Indira Food Kit Scheme recently introduced by the Karnataka Government:

1. The scheme was launched to replace the earlier free rice distribution system under the Anna Bhagya scheme.
2. It aims to improve nutritional quality and reduce diversion of food grains.
3. The kits are distributed through fair price shops under the Public Distribution System (PDS) using BPL ration cards.
4. The food kit contains toor dal, moong dal, sugar, salt and cooking oil.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. None are correct
4. All are correct

 Answer: D

 

23. Consider the following statements about the Karnataka Sahitya Academy Awards 2024:

1. The Karnataka Sahitya Academy honorary awards for 2024 were presented to five distinguished writers including Shudra Srinivas and Pratibha Nandakumar.

2. The ‘Sahitya Shri’ award was conferred on ten writers for their notable contributions to Kannada literature.

3. The Karnataka Sahitya Academy Awards were instituted in 1983 by the Government of Karnataka.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: B

 

24. With reference to the 2024 Karnataka Sahitya Academy honorary awardees, consider the following:

1. D. B. Nayak

2. Mamata Sagara

3. Vishwanath Karnad

4. M. Basavanna

How many of the above were recipients of the Honorary Awards (not Sahitya Shri)?

1. Only two
2. Only three
3. All four
4. D.Only one

Answer: B

 

25. Consider the following statements regarding Mental Health Santhe 4.0 hosted by NIMHANS in 2025:

1. The initiative focuses on promoting community participation in mental health and suicide prevention.

2. It is organised by NIMHANS under the Swachhta Action Plan 2025–26, supported by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

3. The 2025 theme — “Community Supporting Mental Wellbeing Together” — aligns with the observance of World Suicide Prevention Day.

4. It represents the fourth edition of NIMHANS’ flagship mental health awareness initiative.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

26. Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka’s export performance during 2024–25:

1. Karnataka accounted for over 40% of India’s total services exports, making it the top exporter in this category.

2. The State ranked fourth in merchandise exports, behind Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu.

3. Karnataka’s total service export value stood at $158 billion, out of India’s total of $387 billion.

4. Karnataka was also ranked first in both merchandise and services export categories in 2024–25.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A

 

27. Consider the following statements regarding the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM):

1. It was launched in 2015 with the objective of enhancing India’s high-performance computing capacity through indigenously built systems.

2. The Mission aims to design and manufacture a total of 73 supercomputers in India.

3. The grid of these supercomputers is to be connected through the National Knowledge Network (NKN).

4. The Mission is jointly implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Department of Space (DoS).

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Answer: A

 

28. Match the following Supercomputers / Systems with their Unique Features or Achievements:

Supercomputer / System	Feature / Achievement
A. PARAM 8000	1. India’s first indigenously developed supercomputer (1991)
B. AIRAWAT	2. India’s fastest AI supercomputing system (2023)
C. RUDRA	3. First indigenously designed HPC server
D. PARAM Siddhi-AI	4. Ranked among top 100 supercomputers globally in 2020

Select the correct code:

1. A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
2. A–2, B–1, C–4, D–3
3. A–1, B–4, C–2, D–3
4. A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4

 Answer: D

 

29. The Bukkapatna Chinkara Wildlife Sanctuary lies in a rain-shadow region of Karnataka. Which of the following statements best explains this phenomenon?

1. It receives high annual rainfall due to the Western Ghats monsoon currents.
2. The Eastern Ghats obstruct monsoon winds, causing dry conditions.
3. It lies east of the Western Ghats, where descending air currents reduce rainfall.
4. It receives rain primarily from the northeast monsoon, making it semi-arid.

Answer: C

 

30. The development of a “data centre park at Tavarekere” aligns most closely with which of the following policy priorities of Karnataka?

1. Mission Karmayogi Karnataka
2. Beyond Bengaluru Digital Economy Policy
3. Raitha Shakti Scheme
4. Karnataka Renewable Energy Mission

Answer: B

 

31. The Karnataka–GAIL wet waste gasification initiative will most directly reduce the emissions of which greenhouse gas?

1. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
2. Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
3. Methane (CH₄)
4. Sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆)

Answer: C

 

32. The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, have been issued under which parent legislation?

1. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
2. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
3. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
4. National Green Tribunal Act, 2010

Answer: A

 

33. Under the SWM Rules, 2016, which of the following entities have been given Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR)?

1. Plastic packaging manufacturers
2. E-waste producers
3. Battery manufacturers
4. Textile mills

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

 

34. Match the following schemes/missions with their respective implementing ministries:

Scheme/Mission	Implementing Ministry
A. Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban)	1. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
B. Swachh Bharat Mission (Gramin)	2. Ministry of Jal Shakti
C. GOBAR–Dhan Scheme	3. Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
D. Waste to Wealth Mission	4. Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India
E. NAMASTE Scheme	5. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

 Select the correct code:

1. A–2, B–1, C–3, D–4, E–5
2. A–1, B–3, C–2, D–5, E–4
3. A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4, E–5
4. A–1, B–2, C–4, D–3, E–5

Answer: C

 

35. Consider the following statements about the Bengaluru Business Corridor (BBC):

1. The Bengaluru Business Corridor is being implemented by the Bangalore Development Authority (BDA).
2. It aims to connect Electronic City with Tumakuru Road and Mysuru Road.
3. It is primarily designed as a freight-dedicated industrial corridor similar to the Delhi–Mumbai Industrial Corridor.
4. One of its key objectives is to decongest Bengaluru’s traffic by diverting through-traffic and providing an alternative to the NICE Road.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

 

36. With reference to the Karnataka Administrative Reforms Commission–2 (KARC–2), consider the following statements:

1. The Commission has Cabinet-rank status and reports directly to the Chief Minister.

2. Its recommendations focus on e-Governance, citizen charters, and administrative decentralisation.

3. It was established following the recommendations of the Karnataka Public Service Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

37. Assertion (A): District Planning Committees play a crucial role in ensuring decentralized planning and convergence of local development efforts.

Reason (R): They are constitutionally empowered to allocate funds and execute projects independently of the State government.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: C

 

38. Consider the following statements regarding the District Planning Committee (DPC):

1. The DPC is a constitutional body established under Article 243Z of the Constitution of India.
2. It is mandatory for every State to constitute a DPC in each district.
3. The main function of the DPC is to consolidate the plans prepared by the Panchayats and Municipalities in the district and to prepare a draft development plan.
4. The Chairperson of every DPC must necessarily be the District In-charge Minister of the State Cabinet.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

39. Consider the following pairs:

Measure/Case/Initiative	Objective
1. NALSA v. Union of India (2014)	a. Recognition of transgender persons as the third gender
2. Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019	b. Legal framework prohibiting discrimination against transgender persons
3. SMILE Scheme	c. Holistic rehabilitation and livelihood support for transgender persons
4. National Portal for Transgender Persons	d. Online certification and welfare access for transgender individuals

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

 

40. Assertion (A): The ASTraM app provides congestion alerts every 15 minutes to traffic authorities.

Reason (R): This enables the Bengaluru Traffic Police to plan diversions and manpower deployment based on predictive analytics.

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

 

41. With reference to the ASTraM app launched by Bengaluru Traffic Police, consider the following statements:

1. The app stands for Actionable Intelligence for Sustainable Traffic Management.

2. It provides real-time data analytics to assist traffic officials in congestion management.

3. Citizens can use it only to pay traffic fines and not to report accidents.

4. It provides congestion alerts every 15 minutes to concerned authorities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

 Answer: B

 

42. The Devadasi system, historically associated with South India, can be traced back to which of the following periods?

1. Sangam Age (3rd century BCE – 3rd century CE)
2. Early Chola, Chera, and Pandya dynasties
3. Vijayanagara Empire period
4. Colonial British era

Answer: B

 

43. With reference to the Karnataka Devadasi (Prevention, Prohibition, Relief and Rehabilitation) Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:

1. The Bill seeks to replace an existing law enacted in 1982 that prohibited the dedication of women as Devadasis.
2. The Bill introduces provisions for both punitive measures and state-supported rehabilitation for victims.
3. The Karnataka State Women’s Development Corporation (KSWDC) acts as the nodal agency for the implementation of the Bill.
4. The Bill has been enacted under the Concurrent List of the Constitution as it deals with social welfare and criminal law.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

 

44. With reference to the appointment of judges in the High Courts under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with the Governor of the State and the Chief Justice of India.
2. The appointment of other judges of the High Court requires consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State, and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
3. The Constitution mandates consultation with the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) before appointing High Court judges.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

 

45. With reference to the tenure and removal of High Court judges, consider the following statements:

1. A judge of a High Court holds office until he attains the age of 62 years.
2. A judge can resign by addressing his resignation to the Chief Justice of India.
3. The procedure for the removal of a High Court judge is the same as that for a Supreme Court judge.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

National And International MCQ’s

1. Which of the following countries is not a current member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA)?

A) Switzerland

B) Iceland

C) Liechtenstein

D) Finland

Answer: D

2. The India–EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) was signed in:

A) January 2023, Geneva

B) March 2024, New Delhi

C) April 2024, Brussels

D) February 2023, Zurich

Answer: B

3. The TEPA includes provisions on “Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures.” These relate primarily to:

A) Digital trade and cybersecurity

B) Food safety and plant/animal health standards

C) Cross-border taxation

D) Environmental impact assessments

Answer: B

4. According to the Nature Plants study, the steady increase in the size of Amazon trees is primarily attributed to:

A) Nutrient enrichment from the Andes Mountains

B) The carbon fertilisation effect caused by rising CO₂ levels

C) Genetic adaptation due to deforestation pressures

D) Enhanced precipitation in equatorial regions

Answer: B

5. The carbon fertilisation effect refers to:

A) The conversion of soil carbon into biomass by microorganisms

B) The increase in photosynthetic activity due to higher CO₂ concentrations

C) The release of carbon from decaying organic matter

D) The reduction of atmospheric carbon by oceanic absorption

Answer: B

6. Which country contains the largest share of the Amazon rainforest?

A) Peru

B) Colombia

C) Brazil

D) Venezuela

Answer: C

7. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Tribes	Region
A) Yanomamo	Amazon Basin
B) Inuit	Northern Andes
C) Zulu	Brazil
D) Maori	Venezuela

Answer: A

8. Brazil’s Forest Code (2012) requires Amazonian landowners to:

A) Reforest only 20% of their land

B) Maintain up to 80% of their land as Legal Forest Reserve

C) Use land exclusively for eco-tourism

D) Transfer ownership to indigenous tribes

Answer: B

9. The Amazon Cooperation Treaty Organization (ACTO) focuses on:

A) Military cooperation among Amazon nations

B) Regional cooperation on sustainable development and conservation

C) Establishing trade barriers within Amazon countries

D) Reducing hydroelectric projects in the Andes

Answer: B

10. Which of the following global initiatives supports reducing emissions from deforestation and promotes sustainable forest management?

A) UNEP Green Fund

B) UN REDD+ Programme

C) G-20 Forest Alliance

D) Kyoto Protocol Annex II

Answer: B

11. The Amazon Fund (2008), supported by which of the following countries:

A) Norway and Sweden

B) Norway and Finland

C) Norway and Germany

D) Sweden and Finland

Answer: C

12. The idea of setting up a Public Service Commission in India was first provided by which of the following Acts?

A) Indian Councils Act, 1892

B) Government of India Act, 1909

C) Government of India Act, 1919

D) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: C

13. The establishment of the Public Service Commission in October 1926 was based on the recommendations of:

A) Islington Commission (1912)

B) Montagu-Chelmsford Report (1918)

C) Lee Commission (1924)

D) Simon Commission (1928)

Answer: C

14. Consider the following statements regarding Union Public Services Commission:

a). The tenure of the Chairman and members is 6 years or till 62 years of age, whichever is earlier.

b). The UPSC Chairman after completing their term can be reappointed once by the President.

c). The removal of the Chairman or a member by the President requires resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A) Only a and b

B) Only a and c

C) Only b and c          

D) None

15. The President can remove a UPSC member without referring to the Supreme Court in which of the following situations?

a). Adjudged insolvent

b). Engages in paid employment outside office duties

c). Found guilty of corruption

d). Mentally or physically unfit

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. A) a, b and c only
2. B) a, b and d only
3. C) a and c only
4. D) b and d only

Answer: B

16. Who is regarded as the “Father of Civil Services in India”?

A) Lord Wellesley

B) Lord Cornwallis

C) Warren Hastings

D) Lord Curzon

Answer: B

17. The Charter Act of 1853 is significant because it:

A) Introduced competitive examinations for civil services

B) Abolished the dual government system

C) Extended the rule of the East India Company

D) Created the Indian Legislative Council

Answer: A

18. Who was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Services (ICS)?

A) Dadabhai Naoroji

B) Surendranath Banerjee

C) Satyendranath Tagore

D) R.C. Dutt

Answer: C

19. The provision for creation of All India Services such as IAS, IPS, and IFS is laid down in:

A) Article 309

B) Article 310

C) Article 311

D) Article 312

Answer: D

20. Articles 315 to 323 of the Indian Constitution deal with:

A) Election Commission of India

B) Public Service Commissions for both at the Union and at the States.

C) Emergency Provisions

D) Finance Commission

Answer: B

1. With reference to the new India–Bhutan railway projects, consider the following statements:
2. The projects originated from the 2005 Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on cross-border rail connectivity.
3. These projects are being jointly implemented by the Indian Railways and the Royal Bhutan Army.
4. The initiative aligns with India’s Neighbourhood First Policy and complements its commitment of $1.2 billion for Bhutan’s 13th Five-Year Plan.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Options:

A) a and c only

B) b and c only

C) a and b only

D) a, b and c

Answer: A

1. With reference to NASA’s Interstellar Mapping and Acceleration Probe (IMAP) mission, consider the following statements:
2. IMAP is primarily intended to study the boundary region between the heliosphere and interstellar space.
3. The mission aims to understand how solar and cosmic particles are accelerated and how the heliosphere shields the solar system from galactic radiation.
4. It is positioned at the Earth–Sun Lagrange Point 2 (L2) for optimal observation of the heliotail.

Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct?

Options:

A) Only 2

B) Only 1

C) All are correct

D) None are correct

Answer: B

1944. With reference to the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), consider the following statements:
1945. ICAO is a specialized agency of the United Nations established under the Chicago Convention of 1944.
1946. The ICAO Council, elected every three years, comprises 36 Member States categorized under three parts based on specific criteria.
1947. Part II of the ICAO Council includes States that make the largest contribution to the provision of facilities for international civil air navigation.
1948. India was elected to Part III of the ICAO Council for the 2025–2028 term.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Options:

A) 1, 2 and 3 only

B) 1, 3 and 4 only

C) 2, 3 and 4 only

D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

1. The tradition of presenting the Silver Trumpet and Trumpet Banner to the President’s Bodyguard (PBG):
2. Was initiated by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in 1957 to mark the ceremonial association between the President and the Regiment.
3. Represents the highest honor bestowed by the Head of State on any military unit in India.
4. Is unique to the President’s Bodyguard, symbolizing their status as the President’s personal troops.

Which of the statements given above is/ are not correct?

Options:

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Answer: D

25. With reference to India’s first Dugong Conservation Reserve, consider the following statements:

a). It was established under the WLP Act, 1972 by the Tamil Nadu government in northern Palk Bay.

b). It contains extensive seagrass meadows which serve as feeding grounds for dugongs, and often referred to as the “farmers or gardeners of the sea”.

c). It is listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and included in Schedule I of the WLP Act, 1972.

d). It was recognized as India’s first marine biosphere reserve by the IUCN in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Options:

1. Only 2
2. Only 3
3. None are correct
4. All are correct

Answer: B

1. In India, populations of the Dugong (Dugong dugon) are naturally found in which of the following regions?
2. Gulf of Mannar
3. Palk Bay
4. Gulf of Kutch
5. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Select the correct answer using the code below:

Options:

1. Only 2
2. Only 3
3. None are correct
4. All are correct

Answer: D

27. With reference to the “Payments Regulatory Board (PRB)”, consider the following statements:

a). It has been constituted by the RBI under Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and it functions under the RBI Governor.

b). It is responsible for the regulation and supervision of all payment systems (electronic, non-electronic, domestic, and cross-border).

c). It must meet at least once every quarter and decisions can be made through circulation if directed by the Chairperson.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

Options:

1. a Only
2. b Only
3. a and b only
4. All are correct

Answer: B

28. Consider the following statements regarding the Accidental Deaths and Suicides in India (ADSI) 2023 Report:

a). The report is published under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation and released by National Crime Records Bureau.

b). The data collection is primarily based on police records, covering both natural and unnatural causes of death.

c). Traffic accidents accounted for the highest share

of total accidental deaths in India in 2022.

d). Karnataka recorded the highest number of suicides in terms of farmer suicides in 2023.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. a, b and c only
2. a, c and d only
3. b and c only
4. a, b and d

Answer: B

29. Which of the following correctly explains the Model Youth Gram Sabha (MYGS) initiative?

A) Inspired by the Model Parliament to educate students about parliamentary democracy.

B) Inspired by the Model UN to promote awareness about Panchayati Raj institutions among students.

C) Inspired by the Smart Village programme to improve digital literacy in rural schools.

D) Inspired by the Bharat Scouts & Guides to enhance youth leadership and community service.

Answer: B

30. Which of the following statements about the Bathukamma festival is NOT correct?

A) It is celebrated predominantly in Telangana.

B) It is closely associated with the worship of Goddess Gauri.

C) The festival’s timing coincides with Diwali.

D) It celebrates life, harvest, and feminine energy.

Answer: C

31. As per RBI “spread” in floating-rate loans refers to:

1. The difference between fixed and floating interest rates.
2. The additional percentage added to the benchmark rate to determine the final lending rate.
3. The difference between deposit and lending interest rates.
4. The margin charged by banks for loan processing.

Answer: B

32. Consider the following statements regarding the RoDTEP scheme:

a). It is aligned with WTO norms and the Ministry of Finance is responsible for administering the RoDTEP scheme.

b). It aims to reimburse exporters for embedded duties, taxes, and levies not refunded under any other scheme.

c). Reduces export costs, thereby encouraging competitiveness.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

1. Only 2
2. Only 1
3. All are correct
4. None are correct

Answer: A

33. Consider the following statements regarding the Road Accidents in India, 2023

a). It was released by NCRB and Karnataka recorded the maximum fatalities on National Highways.

b). The Sundar Committee recommended the creation of a National Road Safety Policy and a National Road Safety Board.

c). The UN Decade of Action for Road Safety (2021–2030), declares  the target for reducing road traffic deaths and injuries by 60% by 2030.

How many statements given above is/are correct?

1. Only 2
2. Only 1
3. All are correct
4. None are correct

Answer: B

34. Which of the following institutions was founded by Dr. Muthulakshmi Reddy to support women and social welfare causes?

A) Seva Sadan Society and Avvai Home

B) Women’s India Association

C) Lady Irwin College

D) All India Women’s Conference

Answer: A

35. Consider the following statements regarding the “National Pulses Mission” :

a). It is supported by Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs)

and State Agricultural Universities and State Agencies.

b). It is to achieve self-sufficiency (Aatmanirbharta) in domestic pulses production.

c). Tur, Urad, and Masoor are the major pulses will receive 100% procurement support under PM-AASHA as part of this mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

1. a and b only
2. a and c only
3. All are incorrect
4. All are correct

Answer: D

36. In the context of the Amazon rainforest, what does the term “Flying Rivers” refer to?

A) Underground aquifers connecting different parts of South America.

B) Massive streams of water vapour transported through the atmosphere.

C) Seasonal flood channels of the Amazon River basin.

D) Subterranean water channels feeding into the Amazon River.

Answer: B

37. Who among the following announces the MSP for various crops in India?

A) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)

B) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

C) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)

D) NITI Aayog

Answer: C

38. The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSP based on several criteria. Which of the following is not one of those criteria?

A) Demand and supply situation of the crop

B) Level of buffer stock held by FCI

C) Inter-crop price parity

D) Minimum 50% margin over cost of production

Answer: B

39. Which of the following government agency is implementing the Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP)?

A) Department of Health and Family Welfare

B) Department of Science and Technology

C) Department of Biotechnology

D) Ministry of AYUSH

Answer: C

40. What distinguishes a biostimulant from a biofertilizer?

A) Biostimulants act by improving natural plant functions; biofertilizers directly supply nutrients through microorganisms.

B) Biostimulants fix atmospheric nitrogen; biofertilizers enhance photosynthesis.

C) Biostimulants are always chemical; biofertilizers are always organic.

D) Both terms mean the same in agricultural science.

Answer: A

41. The term “Tomahawk” described as:

A). A missile designed and developed by Ukraine.

B). A missile designed and developed by USA.

C). A missile designed and developed by Russia.

D). A missile designed and developed by UK.

Answer: B

42. Pandit Chhannulal Mishra was known for his association with which gharana of Hindustani classical music?

A) Gwalior Gharana

B) Kirana Gharana

C) Agra Gharana

D) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

 Answer: B

43. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the NATO Pipeline System (NPS)?

A) To transport weapons and ammunition among NATO members.

B) To supply fuel and lubricants to NATO forces with operational flexibility.

C) To deliver humanitarian supplies during natural disasters.

D) To serve as a communication and data exchange network for NATO bases.

Answer: B

44. The PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDDKY) is modeled on the lines of which existing flagship programme?

A) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana

B) Aspirational Districts Programme

C) National Rural Livelihood Mission

D) PM Krishi Sinchayee Yojana

Answer: B

45. Where is Airbus Helicopters, in partnership with Tata Advanced Systems, setting up the final assembly line for H125 helicopters?

1. Hyderabad, Telangana
2. Bengaluru, Karnataka
3. Vemagal, Karnataka
4. Nagpur, Maharashtra

Answer: C

46. Which of the following statements about Snow Leopards is incorrect?

1. They are found only in India and Nepal.
2. They are classified as ‘Vulnerable’ on the IUCN Red List.
3. They are listed under Schedule-I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
4. They inhabit the mountainous regions of Central and South Asia.

Answer: A

47. Which of the following correctly reflects the philosophical distinction of the “Abhidhamma Pitaka” within Buddhist literature?

1. It elaborates on ritual practices and monastic discipline.
2. It presents systematic analysis of mind and mental processes beyond ethical rules.
3. It focuses solely on stories of Buddha’s previous births.
4. It contains dialogues between Buddha and his disciples about moral conduct.

Answer: B

48. Which of the following statements about perigean spring tides is correct?

1. They occur when the Moon is at apogee and the Earth is farthest from the Sun.
2. They are caused by the combined gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon when the Moon is at perigee.
3. They are weaker than normal spring tides because the Moon is farther from the Earth.
4. They are purely atmospheric phenomena unrelated to the Moon’s orbit.

Answer: B

49. Which of the following statements regarding the Moscow Format is correct?

1. It is a military alliance under the leadership of Russia and China.
2. It includes both regional and NATO countries as permanent members.
3. It provides a diplomatic platform for regional countries to coordinate on Afghanistan’s peace process.
4. It was established under the United Nations mandate.

Answer: C

50. The Polar Silk Road is primarily aimed at:

1. Strengthening maritime connectivity between China and Africa via the Indian Ocean.
2. Developing navigable Arctic routes as part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative.
3. Expanding China’s military presence in the Antarctic region.
4. Establishing overland transport corridors through Central Asia to Europe.

Answer: B

51. The Insurrection Act in the United States primarily empowers the President to:

1. Declare martial law across the country during any emergency.
2. Deploy the military or federalize the National Guard for domestic law enforcement during insurrections or civil unrest.
3. Suspend the Constitution temporarily in the event of rebellion.
4. Dissolve state governments that fail to maintain law and order.

Answer: B

52. Which of the following eligibility conditions is correct for beneficiaries under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana?

1. Any Indian household irrespective of roof ownership.
2. Only urban households using grid electricity for more than 10 years.
3. Only households that already have rooftop solar panels.
4. Any Indian citizen owning a suitable roof and not already availing similar rooftop solar subsidies.

 Answer: D

53. In the context of “Operation HAECHI-VI”, which of the following statements is correct?

1. It was conducted solely by the CBI under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. It was a joint global operation coordinated by INTERPOL targeting cyber-financial crimes.
3. It was launched under the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) to monitor cryptocurrency use.
4. It was a bilateral initiative between India and South Korea.

Answer: B

54. The PM GatiShakti National Master Plan (PMGS-NMP) aims primarily to:

1. Promote rural employment generation through digital infrastructure.
2. Provide multimodal connectivity and improve logistics efficiency across India.
3. Create an urban mass housing programme for industrial workers.
4. Strengthen fiscal federalism through infrastructure grants to states.

 Answer: B

55. Which of the following statements about India’s tobacco control progress is correct?

1. India has achieved exactly the WHO NCD target of 30% reduction (2010–2025).
2. India is behind the WHO NCD target for tobacco reduction.
3. India is on track for a 43% reduction in prevalence (2010–2025), exceeding the WHO NCD target.
4. India has achieved less than 20% reduction in tobacco use since 2010.

Answer: C

56. The Yellow Line Campaign introduced in India primarily aims to:

A) Mark tobacco cultivation zones

B) Indicate areas for public smoking

C) Reinforce ban on tobacco sales within 100 yards of schools

D) Identify tobacco-free workplaces

Answer: C

57. In Common Cause v. Union of India (2018), which fundamental right was expanded to include the ‘Right to Die with Dignity’?

1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 32

Answer: C

1. With reference to the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine, consider the following statements:
2. The prize was awarded for discoveries that explained how the human body maintains immune tolerance and prevents autoimmune disorders.
3. The discovery involved a specific group of T-cells that suppress immune responses against self-cells.
4. These cells were first discovered in the bone marrow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

59. Which of the following statements best describes the function of Regulatory T-cells (Tregs)?

1. They promote antibody production by B-cells.
2. They activate macrophages and neutrophils during infection.
3. They suppress immune activation and maintain self-tolerance.
4. They destroy virus-infected cells directly.

Answer: C

1. Consider the following statements regarding the Nobel Prize system:
2. The Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo, while all other prizes are awarded in Stockholm.
3. The Nobel Foundation directly decides the award winners.
4. The Nobel Foundation is the administrative and financial manager of the prizes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

61. With reference to the mud volcanoes of India, consider the following statements:

1. They are found only in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

2. They emit molten lava and ash similar to true volcanoes.

3. They are associated with regions having hydrocarbon deposits.

How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. All
4. None

Answer: B

62. Which of the following gases are typically emitted by mud volcanoes?

1. Methane

2. Carbon dioxide

3. Hydrogen sulfide

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: C

63. The Baratang Island is geologically significant because:

A) It hosts India’s only active lava volcano.

B) It lies along a subduction zone between the Indian Plate and the Burmese Microplate.

C) It marks the mid-ocean ridge between the Eurasian and Indo-Australian Plates.

D) It is the only island with both coral reefs and glaciers.

Answer: B

1. Which of the following statements about the Andaman–Nicobar Islands is/are correct?
2. They are a chain of volcanic islands located along the convergent boundary between the Indian and Eurasian Plates.
3. The region experiences frequent earthquakes due to subduction activity.
4. Barren Island, part of this chain, is India’s only active lava volcano.

How many of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

1. Only One
2. Only Two
3. All are correct
4. None are correct

Answer: B

65. With reference to the MY Bharat–National Service Scheme (NSS) Awards, consider the following statements:

 

1. The NSS was launched in 1969 to commemorate the birth Centenary of Mahatma Gandhi.
2. The awards were instituted by the Ministry of Education in 1993–94 and are presented by the President of India every year.
3. They recognise outstanding voluntary community service under the NSS framework by having a motto of “Not Me, But You”.
4. Both individual volunteers and institutions are eligible for the awards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: B

66. With reference to the PM–SETU scheme, consider the following statements:

 

1. The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. It adopts a hub-and-spoke model with industry-led Special Purpose Vehicles managing the clusters.
3. Each spoke ITI functions as an independent centre of excellence, unlinked from the hub ITI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

67. Which of the following components are included under the Jal Jeevan Mission’s implementation strategy?

1. Greywater management and water quality monitoring.
2. Operation and maintenance of in-village infrastructure.
3. Convergence with other schemes for source sustainability.
4. Subsidy for urban household tap connections

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

68.With reference to the Securities Transaction Tax (STT) in India, consider the following statements:

1. STT is a direct tax levied on the purchase and sale of securities transacted through recognized stock exchanges in India.
2. STT is governed under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956.
3. STT was introduced to curb tax evasion and increase transparency in capital market transactions.
4. It applies to both profit-making and loss-making transactions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: B

69. Which of the following financial instruments attract Securities Transaction Tax (STT)?

1. Equity shares listed on recognized stock exchanges.
2. Equity-oriented mutual fund units.
3. Derivative instruments such as futures and options.
4. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs).

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

70. Which of the following existing Very Large Gas Carriers (VLGCs) are operated by the Shipping Corporation of India (SCI), apart from Shivalik?

1. Sahyadri
2. Anandamayi
3. Ganga
4. Narmada

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

71. With reference to the World Para Athletics Championships, consider the following statements:

1. The event is organized by the International Paralympic Committee (IPC).
2. It is held every four years, in the same cycle as the Paralympic Games.
3. The first edition of the Championships took place in Berlin, Germany, in 1994.
4. The 2025 World Para Athletics Championships official mascot is Viraaj symbolizes equality and innovation in sports technology.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: C

72. With reference to the Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY), consider the following statements:

 

1. It provides end-to-end support to farmers, including production, certification, processing, and marketing of organic produce.
2. Under the scheme, farmers adopting organic farming practices receive ₹31,500 per hectare for a three-year period.
3. The cluster model involves mobilizing farmers over a minimum of 20 hectares for collective organic farming.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

73. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) from National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP)?

1. PKVY is export-oriented while NPOP is meant for domestic trade.
2. PKVY follows Participatory Guarantee System (PGS) certification, while NPOP uses third-party certification.
3. PKVY focuses on large-scale farmers, while NPOP targets smallholders.
4. Both use the same certification and regulatory framework.

Answer: B

74. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with its primary focus?

 

Scheme / Initiative	Primary Focus
1.Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana	Cluster-based organic farming across India.
2. Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER)	Organic value chain development in North Eastern Region.
3. Jaivik Kheti Portal	Online platform for organic trade and awareness.
4. Large Area Certification (LAC) programme	Organic certification for already chemical-free areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 Answer: D

75. With reference to India’s position in global organic agriculture, consider the following statements:

1. As per IFOAM Statistics 2022, India ranks 4th globally in terms of total area under organic certification.
2. India ranks first globally in terms of the number of organic farmers.
3. Sikkim is the first Indian state to achieve 100% organic status.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All are correct

Answer: D

76. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates between Vande Mataram and Jana Gana Mana in the constitutional context?

A.Both are accorded equal status under Article 51A(a).

1. Both are mentioned in the Constitution’s text.
2. Vande Mataram was given equal national status through a Presidential order in 1950, but Article 51A(a) mandates respect only for the National Anthem (Jana Gana Mana).
3. Vande Mataram replaced Jana Gana Mana as the national song in 1950.

Answer: C

77. With reference to Leprosy (Hansen’s Disease), consider the following statements:

1. It is caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium leprae.
2. Transmission occurs mainly through droplets from the nose and mouth of untreated cases.
3. Multibacillary leprosy indicates a lower density of bacilli and milder clinical symptoms.
4. Introduction of Multidrug Therapy (MDT) in India began in 1983, which revolutionized treatment outcomes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 4.1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

78. With reference to India’s National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP), consider the following statements:

1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the National Health Mission (NHM).
2. Its target is to achieve interruption of leprosy transmission by 2027.
3. Nikusth 2.0, launched in 2023, is a mobile-based application for patient teleconsultation and telemedicine.
4. Leprosy screening has been integrated into Ayushman Bharat’s Comprehensive Primary Health Care activities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

79. The Namchik–Namphuk Coal Block, often seen in news, is located in which of the following regions of India?

1. Tirap district, Arunachal Pradesh
2. Changlang district, Arunachal Pradesh
3. Tinsukia district, Assam
4. Mon district, Nagaland

Answer: B

80. Which of the following legislative frameworks collectively enable commercial coal mining in India?

 

1. Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957
2. Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015
3. Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957
4. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

81. On Earth, phosphine (PH₃) is primarily produced by:

 

1. Industrial combustion of fossil fuels
2. Volcanic emissions rich in sulfur
3. Anaerobic microbial activity in oxygen-poor environments.
4. Photochemical reactions in the upper atmosphere

Answer: C

82. In the context of India’s bilateral naval engagements, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Naval Exercise	Partner Country
VARUNA	France
MALABAR	Japan & USA
AUSINDEX	United Kingdom
KONKAN	Australia

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 2 and 4 only

Answer: A

83. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Shram Shakti Niti 2025?

1. It seeks to provide universal and portable social security to all workers.
2. It aims to create a resilient and equitable labour ecosystem ensuring dignity for all.
3. It proposes the merger of all labour codes into a single Employment Code.
4. It emphasises digital skilling through the National Career Service–DPI.

Answer: C

84. Which of the following pairs of Invasive Alien Species and their impact is incorrectly matched?

Invasive Alien Species	Their impacts
A. Lantana camara	Prevents forest regeneration by outcompeting native plants.
B. Eichhornia crassipes	Reduces oxygen in water bodies, harming aquatic life.
C. Parthenium hysterophorus	Improves soil fertility and prevents erosion.
D. Clarias gariepinus	Threatens native fish biodiversity.

Answer: C

 

85. Assertion (A): Ballast water management is an essential step in controlling terrestrial invasive species.

Reason (R): Ballast water is mainly responsible for spreading plant invasions on land.

A.Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

1. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
2. A is true, but R is false.
3. Both A and R are false.

Answer: D

86. Which of the following statements correctly differentiates the biometric authentication feature for UPI transactions introduced in 2025?

1. The authentication is processed through centralized Aadhaar servers maintained by UIDAI.
2. It enables face and fingerprint verification locally on the user’s device, enhancing privacy.
3. It eliminates the need for PIN-based authentication for eligible users.
4. It is mandatory for all UPI users above a certain transaction threshold.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2, and 3 only
4. 2 only

Answer: B

87. With reference to the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), consider the following statements:

1. It was established by the Reserve Bank of India and the Indian Banks’ Association under the Companies Act, 1956.
2. It functions under the provisions of the RBI Act, 1934.
3. It operates as a not for-profit company handling all wholesale and retail payment systems in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

88. Which of the following institutions are covered under the Reserve Bank – Integrated Ombudsman Scheme (RB-IOS)?

 

1. Scheduled Commercial Banks
2. State Co-operative Banks
3. Primary (Urban) Co-operative Banks with deposits below ₹50 crore
4. NBFCs with asset size of ₹100 crore or more that accept deposits

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 4 only
2. 1, 3, and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A

89. Recently, the Government of India announced plans to promote PM-KUSUM in African and island nations. This initiative will be channelled through:

 

1. The International Solar Alliance (ISA)
2. The International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)
3. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
4. The World Bank’s Solar Initiative

 Answer: A

90. PM-KUSUM Scheme has three main components. Which of the following correctly matches them with their objectives?

Component	Objective
Component-A	Decentralized grid-connected renewable energy power plants.
Component-B	Stand-alone solar pumps.
Component-C	Solarization of existing grid-connected pumps.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. a only
2. a and b only
3. a, b, and c
4. b and c only

Answer: C

91. Under the Surrogacy (Regulation) Act, 2021, a surrogate mother must fulfill which of the following conditions?

1. She must be a close relative of the intending couple.
2. She must be a married woman having at least one biological child of her own.
3. She must be between 25 to 35 years of age.
4. She can act as a surrogate mother more than once if medically approved.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1, 2, and 3 only
2. 2, 3, and 4 only
3. 1, 3, and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A

92. The Atacama Desert remains one of the driest places on Earth primarily because —

1. It lies in the rain shadow region of the Andes Mountains.
2. The cold Peru (Humboldt) Current suppresses rainfall by cooling the air masses.
3. It experiences strong westerly winds that carry moisture away.
4. Both A and B.

Answer: D

93. The Sahel region, central to the Africa’s Great Green Wall project, can best be described as —

1. A humid tropical zone separating the Congo Basin and the Indian Ocean.
2. A semi-arid ecological zone between the Sahara Desert and the African savannas.
3. A coastal wetland zone along the Gulf of Guinea.
4. A desert plateau running along the Red Sea coast.

Answer: B

94. The ‘Blue Helmets’ of the United Nations are so called because —

1. They represent the official emblem of the UN Security Council.
2. They are Peacekeeping Forces and wear distinct blue helmets symbolizing neutrality and UN authority.
3. They are members of the UN’s permanent standing army.
4. They operate only under humanitarian and medical missions.

Answer: B

95. With reference to Saksham, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is an indigenously developed Counter-Unmanned Aerial System (CUAS) Grid System.
2. It has been developed jointly by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL).
3. The system integrates real-time sensor data and AI-driven analytics to counter emerging drone threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: B

96. With reference to the National Red List Roadmap and Vision 2025–2030, consider the following statements:

1. It is a joint initiative of the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI), Botanical Survey of India (BSI), and IUCN India.
2. It aims to publish the first national-level Red Data Books for both flora and fauna.
3. The project includes the assessment of approximately 25,000 species of plants and animals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: A

97. Which of the following statements about the Sawalkote Hydroelectric Project is incorrect?

1. It is situated on the Chenab River in Jammu and Kashmir.
2. It is a run-of-the-river project designed with a large reservoir.
3. It is being developed by the NTPC.
4. It is one of the largest hydroelectric projects in the Indus basin.

 Answer: C

98. The Chenab River is also known by which of the following names in ancient and historical texts?

1. Parushni
2. Vipasha
3. Asikni
4. Vitasta

Answer: C

99. Under the Indus Waters Treaty (1960), which of the following statements correctly describes India’s rights over the Chenab River?

1. India has unrestricted consumptive use rights over the Chenab’s water.
2. India can construct storage reservoirs for agricultural irrigation.
3. India can use Chenab’s waters for non-consumptive purposes like hydroelectric power.
4. India cannot utilize Chenab’s waters under any circumstances.

Answer: C

100. Which of the following statements about Bharat Taxi’s digital infrastructure is correct?

1. It is operated as part of the National Highway Authority of India’s e-transport initiative.
2. It is built with support from the National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and integrates with DigiLocker and UMANG.
3. It is managed under the National Informatics Centre (NIC) exclusively for rural transport.
4. It operates under the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) framework of NPCI.

Answer: B

101. The Studentship Program for Ayurveda Research Ken (SPARK) is an initiative of which of the following bodies?

1. National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM).
2. Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS).
3. All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA).
4. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).

Answer: B

102. Which of the following ports have been designated as Green Hydrogen Hubs under the National Green Hydrogen Mission (NGHM)?

A.Deendayal, Paradip, and V.O. Chidambaranar

1. Cochin, Ennore, and Visakhapatnam
2. Mumbai, Mormugao, and Tuticorin
3. Paradip, Haldia, and Kakinada

Answer: A

103. Which of the following statements about the Biomedical Research Career Programme (BRCP)?

1. It is an Indo-UK partnership initiative aimed at strengthening biomedical and public health research capacity in India.
2. Generating patentable discoveries and high-impact publications and enhancing international peer recognition of Indian researchers.
3. It strengthens India’s biomedical research ecosystem and international collaborations.

How many of the statements given above is/ are correct?

1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. All are correct
4. None are correct

104. With reference to the Times Higher Education (THE) World University Rankings 2026, consider the following statements:

 

1. Oxford University retained its top position for the tenth consecutive year.
2. The ranking evaluates universities across five domains, including “Research Quality” and “International Outlook.”
3. The 2026 edition is the first to use Artificial Intelligence (AI)-assisted bibliometric analysis for research evaluation.
4. India is the third most represented country after the United States and China.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Answer: B

105. Consider the following statements regarding direct recruitment of District Judges in India:

1. Only practising advocates with at least seven years of experience are eligible for direct recruitment.
2. After the recent Supreme Court ruling, judicial officers with seven years of Bar experience before joining service are also eligible.
3. The Governor can appoint District Judges solely based on the recommendation of the State Public Service Commission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

106. Under Article 233 of the Constitution of India, which one of the following authorities is primarily responsible for the appointment of District Judges?

1. The President of India, in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Governor of the State, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court of the concerned State.
3. The Chief Justice of the High Court, in consultation with the Governor of the State.
4. The State Public Service Commission, in consultation with the High Court.

 Answer: B