Author: instakas

MCQ’s on State Issues

1. With reference to the Karnataka Scheduled Castes (Sub-Classification) Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:

1. The Bill seeks to divide all Scheduled Castes in Karnataka into smaller sub-groups for internal reservation purposes.
2. The constitutional validity for such sub-classification was strengthened by a Supreme Court judgment delivered on August 1, 2024.
3. The sub-classification framework is primarily based on empirical data compiled by Justice H.N. Nagamohan Das Commission.
4. Under the revised internal reservation formula, “left-hand” groups and “right-hand” groups have been allotted equal quota shares within the existing Scheduled Castes reservation.
5. The revised quota matrix increases the total reservation for Scheduled Castes in Karnataka from 15% to 20%.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I, II, III and IV only
2. I, III and V only
3. II, IV and V only
4. I, II, III, IV and V

Answer: A

 

2. With reference to the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board, consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body constituted under the Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board Act, 1964.
2. Its jurisdiction extends across the entire area under the Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP).
3. The Board functions entirely through budgetary grants of the Karnataka Government and does not levy user charges.
4. “Jala Doota” is a mobile application through which citizens can submit geo-tagged photographs of water and sewerage complaints.
5. “Antharjala” and “Jalamithra” are consumer-oriented applications associated with borewell NOCs and monitoring of leakages or drainage issues.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 2, 3, and 4 only 

Answer: C

 

3. With reference to Kempegowda International Airport, consider the following statements:

1. The airport is named after Kempe Gowda I, who founded Bengaluru.
2. It became Karnataka’s first fully solar-powered airport with the solar project developed by CleanMax Solar.
3. Terminal 2 of the airport was adjudged the world’s best new airport terminal among those opened in 2023.
4. Terminal 2 has received the UNESCO Prix Versailles World’s Most Beautiful Airport award along with a special prize for its interiors.
5. “Bengaluru’s Soul”, unveiled at the airport, is a 16-foot public art sculpture created by Spanish artist Jaume Plensa.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 5 only
3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

4. Assertion (A): The State Finance Commission was established to strengthen the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities.

Reason (R): Articles 243-I and 243-Y of the Constitution mandate the constitution of a State Finance Commission every five years to recommend principles for tax devolution and grants-in-aid to local bodies.

Choose the correct answer using the code below:

1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is true, but R is false.
4. A is false, but R is true.

Answer: A

 

5. With reference to the ‘Aditya’ High-Speed Rail Complex, consider the following statements:

1. The complex has been established by BEML in Bengaluru for developing India’s indigenous high-speed rail manufacturing capability.
2. The B-28 high-speed trainset is being developed in collaboration with Integral Coach Factory.
3. The facility incorporates advanced manufacturing technologies such as robotic laser welding and universal hydraulic jigs.
4. The B-28 trainset is designed for an operational speed exceeding 400 km/hr.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

 

6. With reference to Pneumonia, consider the following statements:

1. It is an acute respiratory infection causing inflammation of the lung air sacs (alveoli).
2. It can be transmitted through airborne droplets, surface contact, and blood during childbirth.
3. Children under 5 years and adults above 65 years are among the most vulnerable groups.
4. It remains the single largest identified cause of infant mortality in Karnataka.

How many of the statements given above are NOT correct?

1. Two 
2. Three 
3. Four 
4. All are correct 

Answer: D

 

7. With reference to the Urban Challenge Fund (UCF), consider the following statements:

1. The Urban Challenge Fund is a flagship scheme aimed at transforming India’s urban landscape through market-linked and reform-driven infrastructure financing.
2. It is implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
3. The scheme operates for the period FY 2025–26 to FY 2030–31.
4. The Union Government has allocated ₹1 lakh crore under the Urban Challenge Fund for urban transformation across India.
5. Karnataka is expected to receive a baseline allocation of approximately ₹50,000–55,000 crore under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

 

8. With reference to the Pan-IIT Bangalore Summit 2026, consider the following statements:

1. It is organised by the Government of India in collaboration with the Pan IIT Alumni India Association.
2. The summit is centred on the theme of “Technology Sovereignty” aimed at promoting national self-reliance and deep-tech innovation.
3. The summit includes dedicated thematic tracks on AI, semiconductors, defence, energy, mobility, and healthcare.
4. It is organised as a statutory initiative under the Union Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
5. The summit exclusively focuses on cultural and heritage diplomacy rather than technological innovation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

9. Consider the following statements regarding the report titled “Why do children fail in Kannada?” :

1. The report is submitted by the Kannada Development Authority (KDA) and recommends making Kannada compulsory as either first or second language in all schools in Karnataka, including CBSE and ICSE institutions.
2. It proposes replacing the three-language formula with a bilingual policy to reduce the academic burden on students.
3. The report suggests reserving at least 25% of private sector jobs in Karnataka for students who studied in Kannada medium up to Class 10.
4. It recommends making Kannada mandatory from Anganwadi and pre-primary levels with emphasis on language-focused learning materials.
5. These recommendations align with the Kannada Language Learning Act, 2015, which mandates Kannada as a compulsory subject from Standards I to X in all schools in Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

 

10. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. Only Bengaluru is included in the plan for Sustainable data parks in Karnataka.
2. Only Mysuru and Mangalore are included in the plan for Sustainable data parks in Karnataka.
3. Only Bengaluru, Mysuru and Mangalore are included in the plan for Sustainable data parks in Karnataka.
4. Only Mysuru and Bengaluru are included in the plan for Sustainable data parks in Karnataka.

Answer: C

 

11. Consider the following statements regarding the Greater Bengaluru Integrated Satellite Township (GBIST):

1. The project is also known as the Greater Bengaluru Innovation and Tech City (GBIT).
2. It is planned as a ₹18,133-crore “work-live-play” metropolis.
3. The project is designed to serve as Bengaluru’s third Central Business District (CBD) to reduce urban congestion.
4. Around 2,000 acres have been earmarked for AI-driven industries, tech hubs, and innovation centres.
5. It is being developed as India’s first dedicated AI City.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3. 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: B

 

12. With reference to the Karnataka Platform-Based Gig Workers (Social Security and Welfare) Act, 2025, consider the following statements:

1. The Act provides legal recognition and social protection to platform-based gig workers in Karnataka.
2. A dedicated Welfare Fund is financed through a welfare fee levied on aggregator platforms, ranging from 1% to 5% of the payout per transaction.
3. The Act mandates disclosure of algorithmic decision-making systems used by platforms to ensure transparency and fairness.
4. Platforms can deactivate a worker without prior notice if the platform considers the worker’s performance unsatisfactory.
5. Karnataka became the first state in India to launch and operationalize a dedicated digital grievance redressal system for platform-based gig workers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: B

 

13. With reference to the recently launched respiratory health surveillance programme in Karnataka, consider the following statements:

1. The programme has been launched by the Karnataka Home Department to monitor the respiratory health of traffic police and other frontline personnel exposed to urban air pollution.
2. The initiative is an expansion of a two-year respiratory screening project conducted in Bengaluru that covered 3,287 traffic police personnel.
3. The screening project established a direct causal relationship between urban air pollution and chronic respiratory diseases among all screened personnel.
4. The Vaayu Respiratory Foundation has been designated as the primary technical agency for implementing the programme across the state.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

14. With reference to the CoE SpaceTech Foundation recently launched in Karnataka, consider the following statements:

1. The CoE SpaceTech Foundation has been established as India’s first state-led Centre of Excellence dedicated to Space Technology.
2. The Centre is located in the Aerospace Park in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
3. It has been launched jointly by the Karnataka Innovation and Technology Society (KITS) and the Satcom Industry Association (SIA-India).
4. The primary objective of the Centre is to promote basic space science research in universities rather than commercial applications of space technologies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

15. Consider the following pairs regarding the ELEVATE Startup Support Programmes of Karnataka:

       Programme                      :                  Objective

1. ELEVATE (General)  :  One-time grant of up to ₹50 lakh for prototype development, market validation and business scaling.
2. ELEVATE Unnati  :  Seed funding support for startups led by SC/ST entrepreneurs.
3. ELEVATE NxT  :  Promotion of handicrafts and traditional industries through cluster-based development.
4. ELEVATE WomEN  :  Acceleration and support for women-led startups
5. ELEVATE Minorities  :  Dedicated support for entrepreneurs from minority communities

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

16. Consider the following monuments: 

1. Gagan Mahal
2. Anegundi Fort
3. Kumararamana Kumatadurga Fort, 
4. Taj Bawadi
5. Basavakalyan Fort

How many of the above are selected under the Namma Smaraka Initiative:

1. Only Two
2. Only Three
3. Only Four
4. All Five

Answer: D

 

17. Consider the following pairs regarding Karnataka’s initiatives for curbing crimes against women:

       Scheme/Initiative            :               Objective

1. Akka Pade   :    Deployment of women Home Guards to prevent public harassment.
2. Akka Helpline   :    WhatsApp-based support for cybercrime complaints and legal counselling.
3. Santhwana Scheme  :  Hospital-based centres providing medical and legal aid to victims.
4. Gelathi Units  :  24×7 taluk-level support centres for victims of domestic violence.
5. Stairya Nidhi Yojane :  Financial assistance and rehabilitation support for crime victims

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only Two
2. Only Three
3. Only Four
4. All Five

Answer: B

 

18. With reference to urban traffic congestion, consider the following statements:

1. According to the TomTom Traffic Index, the global average traffic congestion index has increased from 20% to 25%.
2. The increase in the global average traffic congestion index represents a rise of 5 percentage points.
3. Bengaluru is ranked as the most congested city in the world according to the TomTom Traffic Index.
4. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) has cited TomTom Traffic Index data while highlighting urban traffic congestion issues.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

19. Consider the following statements regarding the State Education Policy (SEP) initiative in Karnataka:

1. The Karnataka government has constituted a six-member Cabinet sub-committee to review the State Education Policy (SEP) report.
2. The sub-committee is chaired by G. Parameshwara.
3. The SEP report reviewed by the committee consists of eight volumes.
4. The SEP report was prepared and submitted by Prof. Sukhdeo Thorat.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

 

20. Consider the following statements regarding the proposed ‘Wisdom Valley’ project in Karnataka:

1. The project has been proposed by the Karnataka State Policy and Planning Commission.
2. Wisdom Valley is planned as a world-class Knowledge City in Bengaluru Airport City near Devanahalli.
3. The estimated cost of the project is ₹1,55,000 crore.
4. The project aims to develop North Bengaluru into a global hub for education, research, and high-tech innovation on the lines of Silicon Valley.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

 

21. Consider the following statements regarding the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988:

1. In Karnataka, the Act is primarily enforced by the Karnataka Lokayukta.
2. Under the Act a public servant convicted of taking a bribe may face imprisonment ranging from 3 to 7 years along with a fine.
3. The Act deals with criminal misconduct, including misappropriation of property and illicit enrichment.
4. According to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB), Karnataka recorded the highest number of registered corruption cases in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

22. Consider the following statements regarding the Commercial Asset Management Platform (CAMP):

1. The platform has been launched by the Bengaluru Metropolitan Transport Corporation (BMTC).
2. CAMP is a centralized platform designed to streamline and monitor BMTC’s non-fare revenue streams.
3. The platform primarily focuses on improving revenue generated from commercial assets rather than passenger fares.
4. BMTC operates the urban public bus transport system in Bengaluru.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 1

Answer: C

 

23. Consider the following statements regarding Kartavya-KAAMS:

1. Kartavya-KAAMS stands for Karnataka Advanced Attendance Management System.
2. The mobile application has been launched by the Department of School Education and Literacy (DSEL).
3. The app is intended to monitor the attendance of permanent teaching and non-teaching staff in government schools.
4. The system has been introduced to strengthen accountability and attendance management within the school education sector.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

 

24. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Bhoo Guarantee’ (Nanna Khata, Nanna Hakku) Scheme of Karnataka:

1. The scheme aims to provide secure and digitized property records to nearly 23 lakh property owners in Bengaluru.
2. Under the scheme, the fee for conversion of B-Khata properties to A-Khata has been reduced from 5% to 2% of the property’s guidance value.
3. Digital e-Khatas issued under the scheme incorporate features such as GPS mapping, Aadhaar linkage, and owner photographs to reduce fraud.
4. Weekly open-house camps are being organized every Saturday across Assembly constituencies to facilitate property-related services and reduce dependence on middlemen.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

 

25. Consider the following statements regarding the Karnataka State Action Plan on Climate Change (KSAPCC):

1. The KSAPCC (2024–2030) is designed to address climate risks in Karnataka while aligning state actions with India’s national climate goals.
2. The plan, led by the Environment Management and Policy Research Institute (EMPRI), mandates climate targets across 13 state departments.
3. The plan emphasizes centralized climate governance by restricting implementation and monitoring to state-level agencies alone.
4. Key interventions under the plan include drought-resistant crops, artificial aquifer recharge, Western Ghats afforestation, solar grid integration, and localized urban climate action plans.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

26. Consider the following statements regarding Lakkundi:

1. Lakkundi, known in ancient times as Lokkigundi, flourished under the Kalyana Chalukyas and emerged as an important commercial centre with a royal mint (Tankashale).
2. The architectural tradition of Lakkundi represents the Kalyana Chalukya style, a transitional phase between the Badami Chalukya and Hoysala styles, characterized by the use of chloritic schist (soapstone).
3. The Brahma Jinalaya, built by Queen Attimabbe around 1007 CE, is regarded as the oldest Jain shrine in Lakkundi.
4. Lakkundi was exclusively a Shaivite centre and lacks evidence of Jain or Vaishnavite religious traditions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

Key Answers

01). A     

02). C

03). A

04). A

05). B

06). D

07). B

08). A

09). B

10). C

11). B

12). B

13). A

14). A

15). A

16). D

17). B

18). A

19). D

20). C

21). A

22). C

23). D

24). D

25). A

26). A

National and International Issues MCQ’s

1. Consider the following pairs:

Channel / Passage	Separates
1. Duncan Passage	South Andaman and Little Andaman
2. Ten Degree Channel	Andaman Islands and Nicobar Islands
3. Six Degree Channel	Great Nicobar and Sumatra
4. Eight Degree Channel	Minicoy Island and Maldives

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Two only
2. Three only
3. All Four 
4. One only 

 

Answer: C

 

2. Which of the following locations forms a tri-junction involving India, Nepal and China?

1. Kalapani
2. Lipulekh Pass
3. Limpiyadhura
4. Dharchula

Answer: B

 

3. Which of the following statements regarding the Treaty of Sugauli, 1816 is/are correct?

1. It was signed between the British East India Company and Nepal.
2. The Kali River was accepted as the western boundary of Nepal.
3. The treaty clearly identified Limpiyadhura as the river’s origin.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. I and II only
2. II only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III

Answer: A

 

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018:

1. A Fugitive Economic Offender is a person against whom an arrest warrant has been issued for a scheduled offence involving ₹100 crore or more.
2. The Act empowers authorities to confiscate properties of the offender located both in India and abroad, including benami assets.
3. A declared Fugitive Economic Offender is barred from initiating or defending civil claims in Indian courts.
4. Cases under the Act are adjudicated through special courts established under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

5. How many of the following NPCI products/ services are directly related to digital payments?

1. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
2. Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM)
3. Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS)
4. National Common Mobility Card (NCMC)
5. Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN)

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answer: C

 

6. The term “Mission Drishti” refers to:

1. India’s lunar exploration programme launched by ISRO.
2. A human spaceflight mission carried by ISRO.
3. A missile defence system developed by DRDO.
4. The world’s first OptoSAR Earth-observation satellite launched by an Indian start-up GalaxEye.

Answer: D

 

7. With reference to the cotton in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Mission for Cotton Productivity (2026–31) is also known as Kapas Kranti and promotes High-Density Planting System (HDPS).
2. Cotton is a subtropical Kharif crop that requires a warm climate and about 210 frost-free days.
3. Black Soil (Regur) is considered ideal for cotton cultivation because of its moisture-retaining capacity.
4. India is the world’s second-largest producer of cotton after China.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four 

Answer: C

 

8. Consider the following statements regarding e-waste management:

1. The E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022 regulate the management and disposal of electronic waste in India.
2. India’s first e-waste clinic was inaugurated in Indore, Madhya Pradesh, for processing e-waste only from households.
3. The Basel Convention deals with the transboundary movement and environmentally sound management of hazardous wastes.
4. India is a party to the Basel Convention.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Key Answer: C

 

9. With reference to the Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS 5.0), consider the following statements:

1. It has been introduced to provide financial support to businesses facing liquidity pressures arising from the ongoing West Asia situation.
2. The scheme aims to facilitate an additional credit flow of about ₹2.55 lakh crore.
3. The scheme exclusively targets large industries and multinational corporations.
4. MSMEs and the airline sector are among the major beneficiaries under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I, II and IV only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, III and IV

Answer: A

 

10. With reference to the UDGAM portal, consider the following statements:

1. UDGAM stands for Unclaimed Deposits – Gateway to Access Information and it has been developed by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. It enables users to directly withdraw and settle unclaimed deposits through the portal itself.
3. The portal provides a centralized search facility for identifying unclaimed deposits across participating banks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer: B

 

11. Consider the following statements:

1. The FRP of sugarcane is recommended by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.
2. The FRP is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Finance Minister.
3. India surpassed Brazil to become the world’s top sugar producer in 2021–22 and Uttar Pradesh became the top producer of sugar in India.
4. The sugar industry in India is confined only to northern states such as Uttar Pradesh and Punjab.

With reference to the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane and the sugar industry in India, which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer: B

 

12. With reference to the Pulitzer Prize, consider the following statements:

1. The Pulitzer Prize was established in 1917 in honour of Joseph Pulitzer and is administered by Columbia University.
2. The Pulitzer Prize recognises excellence in journalism, literature and music composition.
3. Among the 23 Pulitzer Prize categories, only the Public Service category receives a gold medal.
4. Gobind Behari Lal became the first person from India to win the Pulitzer Prize for journalism in 1937.
5. Two Indian journalists named Anand RK and Suparna Sharma along with Natalie Obiko Pearson won the Pulitzer Prize 2026. 

How many of the statements given above are NOT correct?

1. Three only
2. Four only
3. All Five 
4. All are correct 

 

Answer: D

 

13. With reference to the Komagata Maru Incident, consider the following statements:

1. The incident was linked to the discriminatory immigration policy known as the Continuous Journey Regulation imposed by Canada.
2. The ship Komagata Maru was chartered by Baba Gurdit Singh to challenge exclusionary immigration laws.
3. The passengers of the Komagata Maru were allowed to settle permanently in Vancouver after intervention by the British government.
4. The incident strengthened revolutionary nationalist activities associated with the Ghadar Party.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

14. Consider the following statements:

1. The national Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) improved from 904 during 2017–19 to 917 during 2021–23.
2. India’s Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) is about 25 deaths per 1,000 live births, and it has shown a long-term decline for both male and female infants.
3. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) for females remained lower than that of males in higher education.
4. More than 70% of working rural females in India are engaged in agricultural activities.

With reference to the “Women and Men in India 2025” report released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

 

15. Which of the following is released the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) 2.0?

1. Ministry of Rural Development
2. NITI Aayog 
3. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
4. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

 

Answer: C

 

16. The term “Girmityas” refers to:

1. Indian soldiers recruited by the British Army
2. Indentured labourers taken from India to plantations overseas
3. Tribal communities displaced during colonial rule
4. Merchants involved in Indian Ocean trade

 

Answer: B

 

17. Consider the following statements:

1. It is an intergovernmental organisation aimed at promoting regional cooperation among countries bordering the Indian Ocean.
2. The organisation was established in 1997 and was formerly known as IOR-ARC.
3. The Secretariat of IORA is located in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
4. India is the current Chair of IORA for the 2025–2027 term.

With reference to the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer: A

 

18. Match List-I with List-II and List-III and select the correct answer using the code given below.

List-I (Scheme)	List-II (Implementing Authority)	List-III (Eligible Age Group)
I. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY)	1. PFRDA through NPS	a. 18–50 years
II. Atal Pension Yojana (APY)	2. Ministry of Finance	b. 18–70 years
III. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY)	3. Ministry of Finance	c. 18–40 years

Codes:

1. I-2-b, II-1-c, III-3-a
2. I-1-b, II-2-c, III-3-a
3. I-2-c, II-1-a, III-3-b
4. I-3-b, II-1-c, III-2-a

Answer: A

 

19. Which of the following best describes MIRV technology?

1. Defensive shield system against missiles
2. Technology enabling multiple warheads from one missile to hit different targets
3. Satellite-based navigation system
4. Missile launch detection system

 

Answer: B

 

20. The order Odonata includes which of the following insects?

1. Beetles and butterflies
2. Dragonflies and damselflies
3. Bees and ants
4. Grasshoppers and crickets

 

Answer: B

 

21. Consider the following statements regarding committees related to the Western Ghats:

1. The Madhav Gadgil Committee recommended declaring the entire Western Ghats as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) and setting up a dedicated ecological authority for its regulation.
2. The Kasturirangan Committee recommended demarcating about 37% of the Western Ghats as Ecologically Sensitive Areas while allowing limited developmental activities in select regions.
3. The Sanjay Kumar Committee was constituted to review state objections regarding ESA demarcation and to examine proposed exclusions from ecologically sensitive zones.
4. The Kasturirangan Committee recommended a strict conservation approach similar to the Gadgil Committee, disallowing most developmental activities across the Western Ghats.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer: B

 

22. Consider the following statements

1. Inter-Operable Criminal Justice System (ICJS) project.
2. Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems (CCTNS)
3. Crime in India
4. Accidental Deaths & Suicides in India
5. Prison Statistics India.

How many of the projects and reports are being implemented and released by NCRB?

1. Only Three 
2. Only Four 
3. All Five 
4. Only Two 

 

Answer: C

 

23. Consider the following statements regarding the Bunker Oil Convention (2001):

1. It was adopted under the International Maritime Organization (IMO).
2. It deals with pollution caused by fuel oil used in ships.
3. It applies only to oil tankers transporting crude oil.
4. It mandates compulsory insurance for ship owners.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I, II and IV only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, III and IV

 

Answer: A

 

24. Consider the following statements:

1. It is a service-oriented digital platform designed to monitor and maintain digital health records of women in their reproductive age.
2. It is developed as an upgraded version of the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) portal.
3. It introduces QR-enabled digital Mother and Child Health (MCH) Cards for portable access to health records.
4. It is a standalone system and does not integrate with any other national health platforms.

Which of the statements given above regarding the JANANI Platform are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer: A

 

25. Consider the following statements:

1. The Vadinar Ship Repair Facility is being developed in Gujarat under a joint initiative of the Deendayal Port Authority and Cochin Shipyard Limited.
2. The facility is designed to handle ship repair and maintenance of vessels up to approximately 300 metres in length.
3. It will primarily function as a greenfield deep-sea port dedicated to container cargo handling on India’s western coast.
4. The project aims to reduce India’s dependence on foreign shipyards for ship repair and maintenance services.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. I and II only
2. I, II and IV only
3. II and III only
4. I, III and IV only

Answer: B

 

26. Consider the following statements regarding Foreign Exchange Reserves:

1. Foreign exchange reserves in India are maintained by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. India’s foreign exchange reserves consist only of foreign currency assets and gold reserves.
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and reserve position in the International Monetary Fund form part of India’s foreign exchange reserves.
4. Foreign exchange reserves help in stabilising the Indian rupee, financing imports, maintain investor confidence and meeting external payment obligations during economic stress.
5. Strong forex reserves helps in protecting the economy during periods of global financial instability, rising oil prices, currency volatility and sudden capital outflows.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Two only
2. Three only
3. Four only
4. All Five 

Key Answer: C

 

27. Which of the following can help finance India’s Current Account Deficit?

1. Foreign Direct Investment
2. Foreign Exchange Reserves
3. External Commercial Borrowings
4. Foreign Portfolio Investment

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

 

28. With reference to jute cultivation and related initiatives in India, consider the following statements:

1. India is the world’s largest producer of jute.
2. West Bengal, Bihar and Assam together account for nearly the entire jute production of India.
3. The Jute Crop Information System project uses remote sensing technology for monitoring jute cultivation.
4. The Jute Crop Information System project is being implemented solely by the Indian Space Research Organisation.
5. Jute is regarded as an eco-friendly fibre because it is biodegradable and renewable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

29. Consider the following statements regarding the Tribe of India:

1. The Baiga tribe is primarily found in the state of Madhya Pradesh.
2. The term “Baiga” refers to a traditional warrior community.
3. The Baigas of Chhattisgarh are classified as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG).
4. The tribe traditionally practiced shifting cultivation known locally as “Bewar” cultivation.
5. Pre-agricultural level of technology, low level of literacy, economic backwardness, and a declining or stagnant population are the criteria for identifying PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 2, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: D

 

30. With reference to the following initiatives related to the Indian judiciary, consider the statements below:

1. “One Case One Data” is a digital initiative aimed at integrating all levels of courts through a unified database system.
2. The initiative connects only the High Courts and the Supreme Court, excluding subordinate courts.
3. “Su Sahay” is an Artificial Intelligence-powered chatbot integrated with the Supreme Court website.
4. “Su Sahay” has been developed by the National Informatics Centre in collaboration with the Supreme Court Registry.
5. The primary objective of “Su Sahay” is to provide financial assistance to litigants appearing before the Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 2 and 5 only
3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: A

 

31. Consider the following statements regarding the National Panchayat Awards:

1. The National Panchayat Awards are conferred annually by the Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar recognises Panchayats for performance linked to Sustainable Development Goals.
3. The Nanaji Deshmukh Sarvottam Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar is awarded only to Gram Panchayats.
4. Kawrthah North Village in Mizoram has secured the top rank under the “Clean and Green Panchayat” category of the Deen Dayal Upadhyay Panchayat Satat Vikas Puraskar 2025
5. Karnataka secured the highest number of awards in the latest edition of the National Panchayat Awards.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 5 only
3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: C

 

32. Consider the following statements regarding the SEHAT initiative:

1. SEHAT stands for “Science Excellence for Health through Agricultural Transformation.”
2. It is a joint initiative of the Indian Council of Medical Research and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
3. The initiative seeks to promote nutrition and public health through measures such as biofortified foods and integrated farming.
4. SEHAT focuses exclusively on increasing agricultural exports from India.
5. The initiative supports the One Health Mission approach.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

33. With reference to the contributions of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in India’s freedom struggle, arrange the following events in chronological order:

1. Bardoli Satyagraha
2. Non-Cooperation Movement
3. Quit India Movement
4. Kheda Satyagraha
5. Civil Disobedience Movement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 4 – 2 – 1 – 5 – 3
2. 1 – 3 – 4 – 2 – 5
3. 3 – 4 – 1 – 5 – 2
4. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 5

Answer: A

 

34. The Right to Speedy Trial in India is derived from which Article of the Constitution?

1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 32

Answer: C

 

35. Consider the following statements regarding Polyendocrine Metabolic Ovarian Syndrome (PMOS):

1. PMOS, earlier known as PCOS, is a hormonal and metabolic disorder affecting women of reproductive age.
2. The disorder affects only reproductive health and has no impact on metabolism or mental well-being.
3. Insulin resistance associated with PMOS may increase the risk of Type-2 diabetes mellitus.
4. Women with PMOS may face cardiovascular risks such as hypertension and heart diseases.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 

Answer: B

 

36. Consider the following statements regarding the PM Schools for Rising India (PM SHRI) Scheme:

1. PM SHRI is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme under the Ministry of Education.
2. The scheme aims to upgrade more than 14,500 existing schools across the country.
3. PM SHRI schools are intended to function as exemplar schools showcasing the provisions of the National Education Policy 2020.
4. The scheme focuses on modern infrastructure including smart classrooms, sports facilities and technology-enabled learning.
5. Only schools managed by the Central Government are eligible to be selected under the PM SHRI Scheme.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 5 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

37. Match the following malaria control initiatives with their objectives/features:

Initiative	Objective/Feature
a. E-2025 Initiative	1. Research alliance established by ICMR for malaria control.
b. National Framework for Malaria Elimination	2. WHO initiative identifying countries with malaria eradication potential by 2025.
c. MERA-India	3. India’s framework aligned with the Global Technical Strategy for malaria elimination.
d. High Burden to High Impact Initiative	4. WHO initiative implemented in high malaria burden countries including India

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
2. a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
3. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
4. a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

Answer: A

 

38. With reference to the Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024, consider the following statements:

1. The Act covers recruitment examinations such as UPSC and SSC as well as entrance examinations like NEET, JEE and CUET.
2. Tampering with computer networks or impersonating candidates are categorized as “unfair means” under the Act.
3. All offences under the Act are bailable in nature, but non-compoundable.
4. Service providers involved in malpractices may face fines and debarment from conducting public examinations.
5. The Central Government may transfer investigation of offences under the Act to a Central Investigating Agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 5 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer:A

 

39. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I	List-II
a. 90-90-90 Strategy	1. Reconnecting HIV patients who discontinued ART
b. Project ACCELERATE	2. Central Sector Scheme for HIV/AIDS control
c. Mission Sampark	3. HIV services through Safe Zindagi portal
d. National AIDS Control Programme (NACP)	4. UNAIDS target related to diagnosis, treatment and viral suppression

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
2. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
3. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
4. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

Answer: C

 

40. Consider the following statements:

1. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia.
2. It mainly affects the respiratory system and does not interfere with daily activities in the early stages.
3. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by decline in cognitive functions such as thinking, memory, and reasoning.
4. Drugs such as lecanemab and aducanumab have shown completely curative outcomes without safety concerns.
5. Eli Lilly and Company has launched an Alzheimer’s treatment called “Lormalzi” in India.

With reference to Alzheimer’s Disease, which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 5 only
3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: B

 

41. Consider the following statements about a personality associated with the Revolt of 1857:

1. His original name was Ramachandra Pandurang Tope, and his father served in the court of the last Maratha Peshwa, Baji Rao II.
2. He maintained close ties with Nana Sahib and emerged as one of the most effective military commanders during the Revolt of 1857.
3. He played an important role in resistance centres such as Kanpur and Gwalior and worked alongside Rani Lakshmibai against British forces.
4. He became known for guerrilla warfare tactics, rapid mobility, and surprise attacks before being captured and executed at Shivpuri in 1859.

The personality described above is:

1. Kunwar Singh
2. Tatya Tope
3. Nana Sahib
4. Mangal Pandey

Answer:B

 

42. Consider the following statements:

1. Sikkim became the first state in India to establish a completely paperless judiciary system.
2. The initiative aims to promote digital governance and improve judicial efficiency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II

Answer: C

 

43. With reference to the PM E-DRIVE Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme aims to promote charging infrastructure and the electric vehicle manufacturing ecosystem in India.
2. The scheme is being implemented for the period from October 1, 2024 to March 31, 2026.
3. Under the scheme, the Ministry of Heavy Industries has introduced e-vouchers for EV buyers to avail demand incentives.
4. The scheme discourages installation of public charging stations in order to reduce government expenditure.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

44. With reference to Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) in India, consider the following statements:

1. Biodiversity Heritage Sites are declared under the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
2. These sites are declared only within National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.
3. State Governments notify Biodiversity Heritage Sites in consultation with local bodies.
4. The objective of Biodiversity Heritage Sites is to conserve areas having unique, ecologically fragile, or biodiversity-rich ecosystems.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. None 

Answer: B

 

45. Consider the following statements:

1. The Act seeks to amend the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.
2. It replaces the earlier self-identification mechanism with a system involving Medical Boards and certification by the District Magistrate.
3. The amendment has generated debate regarding its compatibility with the Supreme Court’s NALSA judgment on self-perceived gender identity.
4. The Act introduces stricter penal provisions for offences such as forcing a person into transgender identity or bonded labour.

With reference to the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Amendment Act, 2026, how many of the statements given above are NOT correct?

1. Two only 
2. Three only 
3. All Four 
4. None 

Answer: D

 

46. With reference to Ru-Soam Bridges, consider the following statements:

1. Ru-Soam bridges are traditional cane bridges associated with the Lepcha community.
2. These bridges are constructed using materials such as bamboo, cane, and wood sourced locally.
3. They are mainly designed for desert ecosystems and arid landscapes.
4. The resilience of these bridges was demonstrated during the Sikkim Glacial Lake Outburst Flood 2023.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. None 

Answer: B

 

47. With reference to Tanzania, consider the following statements:

1. Mount Kilimanjaro, the highest peak in Africa, is located in Tanzania.
2. Tanzania shares a part of Lake Victoria, which is regarded as a source of the Nile River.
3. Lake Tanganyika forms part of the boundary between Tanzania and the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
4. Tanzania is bordered by the Mediterranean Sea on its eastern side.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

48. Consider the following statements:

1. RBSK was launched under the National Health Mission with the objective of early identification and intervention for children from birth to 18 years.
2. Under the programme, children between 6 weeks and 6 years are primarily monitored through Anganwadi Centres.
3. The “4Ds” strategy of RBSK includes Defects at Birth, Deficiencies, Diseases of Childhood, and Developmental Delays & Disabilities.
4. Only communicable diseases are covered under the screening process of RBSK.
5. Newborn screening under RBSK is conducted at delivery points and through home visits by ASHAs.

With reference to the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK), which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

49. With reference to Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome, consider the following statements:

1. Hantavirus is a zoonotic disease caused by an RNA virus belonging to the Hantaviridae family.
2. The disease is primarily transmitted through rodents such as mice and rats.
3. Human-to-human transmission of hantavirus commonly occurs through respiratory droplets.
4. Severe infection may lead to Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome causing respiratory distress.
5. There are no specific antiviral drugs available for the disease, and treatment mainly involves supportive care.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

 

50. The term “Ecocide” is best described as:

1. Conservation of endangered species through captive breeding
2. Severe, widespread, or long-term destruction of the environment caused by human actions
3. Natural extinction of species due to climatic changes
4. Restoration of degraded ecosystems through afforestation

Answer: B

 

51. With reference to the World Migration Report 2026 released by the International Organization for Migration, consider the following statements:

1. International migrants constituted 3.7% of the global population in 2024.
2. The Mexico–United States corridor remains the world’s largest migration corridor.
3. The Afghanistan–Iran corridor and Syria–Türkiye corridor are among the major migration corridors globally.
4. The share of international migrants in the global population declined between 1990 and 2024.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

52. With reference to the Samagra Shiksha Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme was launched in 2018–19 as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. It subsumes Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan, Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan, and Teacher Education schemes.
3. It aims to provide a holistic approach to school education from pre-school to Class 12.
4. It is implemented exclusively for private schools in India.
5. The scheme supports the implementation of SDG 4 and the Right to Education framework.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: B

 

53. With reference to the “Brand North East” initiative, consider the following pairs:

1. Sikkim : Organic State
2. Arunachal Pradesh : Kiwi production
3. Tripura : Queen Pineapple
4. Nagaland : Coffee cultivation
5. Meghalaya : Lakadong Turmeric

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answer: D

 

54. Consider the following paragraph:

A valuable aromatic resin is obtained from certain trees that produce it as a defensive response to infection or injury. This resin is widely used in luxury perfumes, incense, and traditional medicine systems across Asia and the Middle East. It is one of the most expensive natural raw materials in the world. The trade of this product is regulated under Appendix II of CITES due to concerns over overexploitation and declining wild populations.

Which of the following species is being referred to?

1. Sandalwood
2. Agarwood 
3. Rosewood
4. Teak 

Answer: B

 

55. Consider the following statements regarding economic implications of reducing withholding tax:

1. It can increase foreign direct investment inflows.
2. It may improve ease of doing business in cross-border transactions.
3. It directly reduces domestic savings and investment levels.
4. It can facilitate international capital movement and trade flows.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

56. Consider the following statements regarding the Chabahar Port:

1. It is a seaport located in Chabahar in southeastern Iran on the Gulf of Oman.
2. It comprises two separate ports named Shahid Kalantari and Shahid Beheshti.
3. It is situated approximately 170 kilometres west of the Pakistani port of Gwadar.
4. It facilitates India’s access to iron ore from Afghanistan’s Hajigak mines and natural resources from Central Asian countries.
5. It is a key component of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), aimed at connecting the Indian Ocean region with Northern Europe.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answer: D

 

57. Consider the following statements regarding the Asola–Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary:

1. It is located in southern Delhi and extends into parts of Faridabad district in Haryana.
2. It lies along the Southern Ridge of the Aravalli Range.
3. The sanctuary was declared a protected area in 1991 under the WLP Act, 1972.
4. It is popularly known as the “green lungs” of Delhi and acts as a natural ecological barrier against the westward expansion of the Thar Desert.
5. The sanctuary is primarily located in the Himalayan foothills and is part of the Shiwalik ecological zone.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: A

 

58. With reference to “Abhay”, recently in news, consider the following statements:

1. It is an AI-powered chatbot developed by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
2. It is designed to help the public verify the authenticity of CBI notices and communications.
3. It uses blockchain technology to issue criminal convictions digitally.
4. It aims to reduce cyber frauds involving fake notices and impersonation of investigative agencies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

 

59. Consider the following passage:

A large freshwater reptile was recently satellite-tagged and released in a national park located in Assam, which is considered one of the global priority landscapes for turtle conservation. This animal is found in major river systems such as the Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus, Narmada, and Mahanadi, and also extends across several South Asian countries including India, Nepal, Bangladesh, Pakistan, and Afghanistan. It typically inhabits large rivers and canals with muddy bottoms and turbid, flowing water, but may also be found in ponds and lakes.

This species is an opportunistic feeder, consuming fish, birds, reptiles, invertebrates, carrion, and aquatic vegetation, thereby playing an important ecological role in river ecosystems by cleaning up decaying organic matter. It is also heavily threatened due to illegal hunting, international trade, and habitat degradation.

It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, placed in CITES Appendix I, and categorized as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.

Which one of the following species is being described in the passage?

1. Indian Narrow-headed Softshell Turtle
2. Ganges Softshell Turtle
3. Indian Flapshell Turtle
4. Indian Roofed Turtle

Answer: B

 

60. With reference to India–Sweden relations, consider the following statements:

1. PM Modi received the Royal Order of Polar Star and Commander Grand Cross during his visit and it is among the highest honours conferred by Sweden upon a foreign head of government.
2. The first India–Nordic Summit was hosted by Sweden in 2018.
3. The Leadership Group for Industry Transition (LeadIT) was launched jointly by India and Sweden at the UN Climate Action Summit in 2019.
4. LeadIT aims to promote low-carbon industrial transition and sustainable manufacturing practices.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

 

61. With reference to the Indus Waters Treaty, consider the following statements:

1. The treaty was mediated by the World Bank.
2. The western rivers allocated primarily to Pakistan are the Indus, Chenab and Jhelum.
3. India received unrestricted rights over the Ravi, Beas and Sutlej rivers.
4. Under the treaty, India received nearly 80% of the total waters of the Indus river system.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

62. With reference to the National Maritime Heritage Complex, consider the following statements:

1. It is being developed at Lothal in Gujarat.
2. India and the Netherlands signed an MoU in 2025 for cooperation in its development.
3. Lothal was an important port city of the Indus Valley Civilization.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

63. With reference to the Bhojshala Complex, consider the following statements:

1. Bhojshala was established by Raja Bhoja of the Paramara dynasty as a centre dedicated to Goddess Saraswati.
2. It functioned as a major centre of Sanskrit learning during the medieval period.
3. The inscriptions found in the complex include Sanskrit grammar tables, hymns to Vishnu, and portions of the drama Karpuramanjari.
4. Karpuramanjari was written during the reign of Raja Bhoja himself.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

 

64. With reference to the Saranda Forest, consider the following statements:

1. Saranda Forest is situated in Jharkhand and forms part of the Chhotanagpur biogeographic zone.
2. It is known as the largest Sal forest in Asia and is popularly called the “land of seven hundred hills.”
3. The forest ecosystem is dominated by tree species such as Sal, Mahua, and Kusum.
4. The tribal communities associated with the forest include the Ho, Munda, Uraon, and Santhal peoples.
5. The sacred groves known as “Sarna” are associated with the cultural traditions of local tribes inhabiting the region.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answer: D

 

65. Consider the following pairs:

Space Mission     :        Launching/Partner Agency

1. SMILE Mission : ESA and Chinese Academy of Sciences
2. Parker Solar Probe : NASA
3. Solar Orbiter : ISRO and NASA
4. PUNCH Mission : NASA

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Answer: C

 

66. The Green Strategic Partnership was formally declared between India and which country?

1. Sweden
2. Denmark
3. Norway
4. Finland

Answer: C

 

67. Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005:

1. The Central Information Commission (CIC) is a statutory body established under the RTI Act, 2005.
2. Any body substantially financed directly or indirectly by government funds may fall under the definition of “public authority.”
3. The CIC recently held that the BCCI is a constitutional body and therefore exempt from RTI obligations.
4. The RTI Act applies only to ministries and departments of the Union Government.
5. The CIC functions as the final appellate authority under the RTI framework at the central level.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

Answer: A

 

68. Consider the following statements regarding Silver:

1. Silver possesses the highest electrical and thermal conductivity among all metals.
2. Argentite and chlorargyrite are important ores of silver.
3. Mexico is the world’s largest producer of silver.
4. India imports silver mainly from the United Arab Emirates, Britain and China.
5. India has recently shifted silver imports to the “prohibited” category under its import policy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: A

 

69. Consider the following statements regarding the Nordic countries:

1. The Nordic countries consist of Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, and Sweden.
2. All Nordic countries are members of the European Union (EU).
3. Scandinavia geographically forms the core region associated with the Nordic countries.
4. Sweden is the most populated Nordic country, while Iceland is the least populated.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

 

70. Consider the following statements regarding the applicability of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA):

1. The provisions of the Act apply to citizens of India outside India.
2. The Act applies to persons in the service of the Government wherever they may be.
3. The Act applies to persons on ships and aircraft registered in India, wherever they may be located.
4. The Act is applicable only within the territorial jurisdiction of India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Four 
2. Three 
3. Two 
4. One 

Answer: B

 

71. Consider the following statements regarding the AYUSH Anudan Portal:

1. It has been developed under the Ayush Grid initiative of the Government of India.
2. The portal functions as a decentralized offline mechanism for processing AYUSH-related grants.
3. It aims to streamline the submission, appraisal, processing, and monitoring of funding proposals.
4. The portal is integrated with the NGO Darpan Portal for verification of applicant organizations.
5. The nodal ministry for the portal is the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

 

72. Consider the following statements regarding the recently established Persian Gulf Strait Authority (PGSA) by Iran:

1. The PGSA has been established to oversee and manage operations in the Strait of Hormuz.
2. Under the new framework, vessels entering the Strait of Hormuz must obtain transit permits from the authority.
3. The fee regime introduced by Iran under the PGSA has been universally accepted by the United States, Gulf countries, and European nations.
4. The Strait of Hormuz is strategically significant for global energy trade.
5. The PGSA has been created under the supervision of the United Nations Security Council.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 5 only
3. 2, 4 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A

 

73. Consider the following pairs regarding Chandrayaan-3 payloads:

       Payload                     :                  Function

1. ChaSTE : Measurement of thermal conductivity and temperature.
2. ILSA : Study of seismic activity around the landing site.
3. RAMBHA-LP : Measurement of lunar plasma environment.

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

 

74. Consider the following pairs:

       Ramsar Site               :           State

1. Siliserh Lake          :           Rajasthan
2. Kopra Jalashay      :          Chhattisgarh
3. Chhari-Dhand Conservation Reserve : Gujarat
4. Shekha Jheel Bird Sanctuary : Uttar Pradesh

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. One 
2. Two 
3. Three 
4. Four 

Answer: D

 

75. Consider the following statements about a 19th-century freedom fighter:

1. He was originally known as Shivdeen.
2. He was associated with the Shankarpur Estate in Awadh.
3. He served as a trusted commander under Rana Beni Madhav Baksh Singh.
4. He is remembered for rescuing Rana Beni Madhav Singh from British captivity during the Revolt of 1857.

The personality described above is:

1. Mangal Pandey
2. Veera Pasi
3. Kunwar Singh
4. Bakht Khan

Answer: B

 

76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

List-I (Handicraft/Product)	List-II (State/Region)	List-III (Distinct Feature)
a. Shirui Lily silk stole	1. Gujarat	I. “Tree of Life” motif
b. Meenakari and Kundan earrings	2. Rajasthan	II. Traditional gemstone and enamel jewellery
c. Tarakasi	3. Odisha	III. Silver filigree craftsmanship
d. Rogan painting	4. Manipur	IV. Inspired by the rare Shirui Lily flower

Codes:

1. a-4-IV, b-2-II, c-3-III, d-1-I
2. a-2-IV, b-1-II, c-4-III, d-3-I
3. a-4-III, b-2-I, c-1-II, d-3-IV
4. a-3-IV, b-2-III, c-4-II, d-1-I

Answer: A

 

77. Consider the following statements regarding Kiwi cultivation in India and the Arunachal Kiwi Mission:

1. Kiwi is a woody deciduous vine native to eastern Asia and it grows properly in the winter season .
2. It is best suited to tropical lowland regions below 300 m altitude due to its high heat tolerance.
3. In India, Arunachal Pradesh is the largest producer contributing more than 50% of total kiwi production.
4. Kiwi plants generally begin fruiting within 4–5 years and reach full commercial production after about 7–8 years.
5. The Arunachal Kiwi Mission promotes kiwi orchard tourism and farm-stay experiences in regions such as Ziro Valley and Dirang, integrating horticulture with experiential tourism.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 3 and 5 only
2. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: B

 

78. With reference to the Sample Registration System (SRS) in India, consider the following statements:

1. It is conducted by the Registrar General of India.
2. It provides annual estimates of fertility and mortality indicators at both national and sub-national levels.
3. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR) refers to the number of deaths of children below five years of age per 1,000 live births.
4. According to SRS 2024, the Birth Rate in rural areas remained higher than in urban areas.
5. Bihar recorded the highest Birth Rate in 2024.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 1, 2 and 5 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

Answer: A

 

79. With reference to the Bharat Audyogik Vikas Yojna (BHAVYA), consider the following statements:

1. It aims to create 100 future-ready industrial parks integrated with the PM GatiShakti programme.
2. The scheme seeks to improve multimodal connectivity and last-mile access for industries.
3. Only the Central Government will finance and manage the industrial parks under the scheme.
4. The National Industrial Corridor Development Corporation will play an important role in implementation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: A

 

80. Consider the following statements:

1. It is located on the southern bank of the Brahmaputra River.
2. It serves as a wildlife corridor between Kaziranga and Orang National Parks.
3. It lies in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
4. It forms part of the Kaziranga landscape ecosystem.

With reference to the Laokhowa–Burhachapori Wildlife Sanctuary, which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: B

 

81. The term “Zwan–Wolf Effect”, sometimes seen in space science reports, refers to:

1. Sudden expansion of a star during its red giant phase
2. Compression of electrically charged particles along magnetic field lines due to solar wind interaction
3. Formation of asteroid belts between terrestrial planets
4. Emission of gravitational waves from collapsing neutron stars

Answer: B

 

82. With reference to the Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Ninth Amendment) Bill, 2024, consider the following statements:

1. The Bill seeks to enable simultaneous elections for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
2. If the Lok Sabha or a State Assembly is dissolved before completing its term, fresh elections will be held for a completely new five-year term.
3. The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 extends the simultaneous election framework to Union Territory Assemblies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

 

83. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu, the Supreme Court held that the decision of the Speaker under the Tenth Schedule is completely immune from judicial review.
2. The Tenth Schedule relates to disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.
3. In Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur, the Supreme Court prescribed an outer limit of three months for the Speaker to decide disqualification petitions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

 

84. With reference to Vande Mataram, consider the following statements:

1. Vande Mataram was composed by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and first appeared in the novel Anandamath.
2. The novel Anandamath was set against the background of the Revolt of 1857.
3. Rabindranath Tagore first sang Vande Mataram at the 1896 session of the Indian National Congress.
4. Vande Mataram is explicitly protected under the Constitution of India in the same manner as the National Anthem.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: A

 

Key Answers

01). C               26). C           51). A            76). A

02). B               27). D           52). B            77). B

03). A               28). A           53). D            78). A

04). A               29). D           54). B            79). A

05). C               30). A           55). A            80). B

06). D               31). C           56). D            81). B

07). C               32). A           57). A            82). B

08). C               33). A           58). B            83). C

09). A               34). C           59). B            84). A

10). B               35). B           60). D

11). B               36). A           61). A

12). D               37). A           62). D

13). A               38). A           63). B

14). C               39). C           64). D

15). C               40). B           65). C

16). B               41). B           66). C

17). A               42). C           67). A

18). A               43). A           68). A

19). B               44). B           69). B

20). B               45). D           70). B

21). B               46). B           71). B

22). C               47). A           72). A

23). A               48). A           73). D

24). A               49). C           74). D

25). B               50). B           75). B