Blog

  • PM JI-VAN | Antarctic Ozone Hole Closes Early in 2025 | BNHS to Reintroduce Two Vulture Species in Assam | Leprosy | Inhalable Microplastics (iMPs) | Invasive Alien Plants in India

    PM JI-VAN

    Syllabus: GS2/Govt Policy & Intervention; GS3/Environment

    Context

    • Recently, the Union Government has expanded the timeline of the Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana, reaffirming its commitment to sustainable development and energy security.

    PM JI-VAN

    • It was launched in 2019
    • Implementation- Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoP&NG).
    • Objective: To promote 2G ethanol projects, use agricultural waste (biomass), meet Ethanol Blending (EBP) targets, increase farmers’ income and help in environmental goals (such as net-zero emissions).
    • Methodology: The scheme encourages ethanol production from molasses and non-edible biomass (such as crop residues) instead of the petrochemical route.

    Importance

    • Energy security: reducing dependence on fossil fuel imports.
    • Rural Economy: Providing farmers with new markets for their crop residues, increasing their income.
    • Environment: Reducing greenhouse gas emissions, tackling pollution, contributing to the net-zero emissions target.
    • Investment: Attracting private investment in the 2G ethanol sector.
    • Example: India’s first 2G ethanol project (at Panipat by IOCL) was set up under this scheme and dedicated to the nation by the Prime Minister in 2022.

    Additional Information – Biofuels

    • Definition – Biofuels are alternative fuels made from plant and plant-derived resources.
    • Example: Bioethanol, Biodiesel, Green diesel, Biogas etc.

    National Policy on Biofuels, 2018

    • The National Policy on Biofuels 2018 (amended in 2022) provides a framework for increasing the use of biofuels in India to enhance energy security.

    Government Efforts for Biofuel Expansion

    • Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana (Jaiv Indhan – Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran Yojana): It promotes 2G ethanol production from agricultural waste and residues.
    • GOBAR-Dhan Scheme (Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources Dhan): It promotes biogas and bio-CNG production from cattle dung and organic waste.
    • SATAT Scheme (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation): It promotes Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG) production as a fuel alternative.

    Antarctic Ozone Hole Closes Early in 2025

    Syllabus: GS3/Environment

    In News

    • The Antarctic ozone hole that formed in August 2025 closed earlier than usual, offering hope for recovery amid record global warming.

    OZONE LAYER DEPLETION

    Basics – Ozone Layer (O3)

    • It is a highly reactive molecule containing three oxygen atoms.
    • Found in – It is present between 10 and 50 km above the earth’s surface, called the stratosphere.
    • Function – This ozone layer serves as a natural filter for blocking deadly incoming UV radiation from the sun.
    • Significance – This ozone shield is necessary for the survival of human life on the earth.

    OZONE LAYER DEPLETION

    • Definition – The decrease in ozone concentration in the middle layers of the atmosphere – mainly in the stratosphere is referred to as the depletion of the ozone layer.
    • Caused by – It is caused by emissions of anthropogenic halogenated hydrocarbons such as CFCs, HCFCs, Halons, Carbon tetrachloride and Methyl bromide.

    Why is ozone depletion more in Antarctica than the equator?

    • The severe depletion of the Antarctic ozone layer known as the “ozone hole” occurs because of the special weather conditions that exist there and nowhere else on the globe.
      • The very low temperatures of the Antarctic stratosphere create ice clouds called polar stratospheric clouds (PSCs).

    Measures to Prevent Ozone Layer Depletion

    Vienna Convention

    • Objective – To protect human health and the environment from any harmful effects of the depletion of the ozone layer.
    • Held in – Vienna , Austria
    • Adopted in – 1985.
    • Came into force – 1988.

    Montreal Protocol

    • Enforcement – It was agreed upon in 1987 in Montreal, Canada and entered into force in 1989.
    • Objective – To protect the Ozone layer by reducing the production of substances that are supposed to be responsible for Ozone layer depletion.
    • Kigali Agreement – The protocol was further strengthened with the ratification of the legally binding Kigali Agreement in 2016 in Kigali, Rwanda.
    • Significance – It seeks to phase out the production of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) that are potent greenhouse gases by the late 2040s.

    BNHS to Reintroduce Two Vulture Species in Assam

    Syllabus: GS3/ Environment

    Context

    • The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), is set to reintroduce two critically endangered vulture species, Slender-billed Vultures (Gyps tenuirostris) and White-rumped Vultures (Gyps bengalensis), in Assam.

    Vulture

    • Vultures are one of the 22 species of large carrion-eating birds that live mostly in the tropics and subtropics.

    India is home to nine species of Vulture namely

    1. Oriental white-backed,
    2. Long-billed,
    3. Slender-billed
    4. Himalayan,
    5. Red-headed,
    6. Egyptian,
    7. Bearded,
    8. Cinereous
    9. Eurasian Griffon.

    Threats

    • Use of Diclofenac: A veterinary nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) found in the carcass of cattle the vultures feed on. The veterinary use of diclofenac was banned in 2008.
    • Pesticides: The presence of organochlorine pesticide, polychlorinated biphenyls, polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons and heavy metals were also the major cause of mortality.
    • Other threats include lack of nesting trees, electrocution by power lines, and food dearth and contaminated food.

    Conservation Efforts

    • The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) has approved an Action Plan for Vulture Conservation 2020-2025. It includes:
    • Vulture Conservation Centre: Uttar Pradesh, Tripura, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu will get a vulture conservation and breeding centre.
    • India has lost 99 percent of the population of the three species, Oriental White-Backed Vulture, Long-billed Vulture and Slender-billed Vulture.

    Conservation Status

    • Schedule-1 of the Wildlife Protection Act 1972: Bearded, Long-billed, Slender-billed, Oriental white-backed.
    • Rest are protected under ‘Schedule IV’.

    IUCN Red List;

    • Critically Endangered: Oriental White-backed Vulture, Long-billed Vulture, Slender-billed Vulture and Red-headed Vulture.
    • Endangered: Egyptian Vulture.
    • Least Concerned: Eurasian Griffon.
    • Near Threatened: Himalayan, Bearded and Cinereous.

    Additional Information – Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS)

    • It is one of the largest and oldest non-governmental organizations in India
    • Founded on September 15, 1883, in Mumbai,
    • Objective – to conserve nature through action based on research, education, and public awareness.

    Leprosy

    Syllabus: GS2/Health

    Context

    • The Supreme Court has directed the NHRC to address discrimination against persons affected by leprosy.

    Leprosy in India

    • India continues to report about 57 % of leprosy cases worldwide,
    • States with highest prevalence of leprosy – Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Odisha.

    Elimination efforts –

    • National Strategic Plan (NSP) and Roadmap for Leprosy (2023-27) – Launched in 2023, to achieve zero transmission of leprosy by 2027.
    • The Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) 3.3 aims to end leprosy by 2030.
    • The World Health Organization (WHO) declared Jordan as the first country in the world to eliminate leprosy in 2024.

    Leprosy

    • Leprosy is also known as Hansen’s disease.
    • Pathogen – It is a chronic infectious disease caused by a type of bacteria, Mycobacterium leprae.
    • It is known to occur at all ages ranging from early childhood to old age.
    • Symptoms: The disease predominantly affects the skin and peripheral nerves.
    1. Loss of sensation in affected areas.
    2. Left untreated, the disease may cause progressive and permanent disabilities.
    • Transmission: Through droplets from the nose and mouth.
    • Treatment: Leprosy is a curable disease through the multi-drug therapy (MDT).

    Inhalable Microplastics (iMPs)

    Syllabus: GS2/ Health

    In News

    • Recent study has revealed the presence of inhalable microplastics (iMPs) in the air of major Indian markets, marking them as a new class of pollutants comparable to PM2.5 and PM10.

    Inhalable microplastics (iMPs)

    • They are plastic particles less than 10 micrometres (microns) in size and can enter human lungs through the nose.
    • It found the highest concentrations in Kolkata and Delhi, with iMPs contributing up to 5% of urban particulate matter, largely from synthetic clothing, packaging, tyre wear, and footwear.
    • Inhalable microplastics (iMPs) can penetrate deep into the lungs, enter the bloodstream, and act as carriers for toxic chemicals like diethyl phthalate and heavy metals such as lead.
    • It poses risks of cancer, respiratory, hormonal, and neurological disorders.

    Invasive Alien Plants in India

    Syllabus: GS3/Environment

    In News

    • Invasive alien plants are rapidly transforming India’s ecosystems, nearly doubling their range in sensitive regions like the Western Ghats, Himalayas, and the north-east, driven by climate change, land-use shifts, and biodiversity loss.

    Invasive Alien Plants

    • Definition – Invasive species refer to non native species that, when introduced to a new environment, can cause harm to the ecosystem, economy, or human health.
    • These species often outcompete or negatively interact with native species, disrupt natural processes, and can lead to significant ecological imbalances.
    • They can be plants, animals, fungi, or even microbes.

    Characteristics of Invasive Species

    • Rapid reproduction and growth
    • High dispersal ability
    • Broad dietary range
    • Physiological adaptability to new conditions
    • Tolerance to a wide range of environmental factors
    • Capacity to alter growth forms based on surroundings

    Common Invasive Species Found in India

    • Viper grass
    • Lantana camara
    • Prosopis juliflora
    • Water hyacinth
    • African catfish
    • Cotton Mealy Bug
    • Primrose Willow

    Measures taken at the International Level

    • United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD – 1992): The Convention emphasizes the need to prevent the introduction of, control, or eradicate invasive alien species that threaten ecosystems, habitats, or species.
    • Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF – 2022): It has been agreed under the UN CBD and aims to reduce the rate of introduction and establishment of invasive alien species by at least 50% by 2030.
    • Global Invasive Species Programme (GISP): It supports research, capacity building, and management strategies to address invasive species issues worldwide.

    Measures taken at the National Level

    • National Action Plan on Invasive Alien Species (NAPINVAS): It focuses on the prevention, early detection, control, and management of invasive species.
    • National Invasive Species Information Center (NISIC) – It  provides information and resources on invasive species in India.
    • The Himalayan Environmental Foundation is working to control invasive species like Lantana camara in the Himalayas.

    World Soil Day

    Syllabus: GS3/ Environment

    Context

    • World Soil Day is observed annually on December 5 to raise awareness about the importance of healthy soil and to advocate for sustainable management.

    World Soil Day

    • Observed on – December 5
    • Observed by – International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS).
    • 2025 theme – “Healthy Soils for Healthy Cities”.

    Initiatives for Soil Conservation

    • Soil Health Card Scheme: It provides farmers with soil nutrient status reports to encourage balanced fertilizer use and improve productivity.
    • Promotion of Organic Farming: Initiatives like Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) encourage organic farming practices to maintain soil health.

    Global Initiatives

    • Global Soil Partnership (GSP): It is an FAO-led initiative to improve global soil governance and promote sustainable soil management.
    • United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD): It works to prevent land degradation and promote sustainable land management
    • It has a pledge for land degradation neutrality (LDN) by 2030.

    Kuno National Park (KNP)

    Syllabus: GS3/Environment

    Context

    • On International Cheetah Day (December 4), the Madhya Pradesh Chief Minister released three cheetahs into the wild at Kuno National Park.

    Kuno

    • Located in – Sheopur district, Madhya Pradesh.
    • It is named after the Kuno River, a perennial tributary of the Chambal that flows through the park.
    • Notified as – Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary in 1981
    • Forest type – Northern Tropical Dry Deciduous

    Do you know?

    • Twelve years after the Supreme Court’s 2013 order to shift some Asiatic lions from Gujarat to Madhya Pradesh’s Kuno as a second home, the translocation still hasn’t materialised.

    About

    • India declared the cheetah extinct in 1952, after decades of over-hunting, habitat fragmentation, and depletion of prey species.
    • The launch of Project Cheetah in 2022 and the arrival of cheetahs from Namibia and South Africa created the world’s first intercontinental relocation programme for a large carnivore.
    • Botswana – It’s a landlocked country with nearly 70% of its landmass covered by the Kalahari Desert, and holds one of the world’s largest wild cheetah populations.

    Project Cheetah

    • Overview: Project Cheetah is India’s ambitious attempt to reintroduce the cheetah in suitable open forest and grassland ecosystems.
    • Launched By: National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), a statutory body under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (amended 2006).
    • Uniqueness – It is the world’s first intercontinental translocation of a large wild carnivore.

    Translocations So Far:

    • 8 cheetahs from Namibia in 2022
    • 12 cheetahs from South Africa in 2023
    • 8 cheetahs from Botswana (2025 announcement)

    Cheetah(Acinonyx jubatus)

    • It is the world’s fastest mammal and the only large carnivore to have gone extinct in India (1952).
    • Unlike other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
    • There are two main species: the African cheetah (Vulnerable) and the Asiatic cheetah (Critically Endangered), found only in eastern Iran and parts of Africa.​
  • ‘Digital Heritage Portal’

    ‘Digital Heritage Portal’

    In News –

    • State to develop ‘Digital Heritage Portal’ to preserve cultural legacy.

    ‘Digital Heritage Portal’:

    • Vision : Karnataka is to become a national leader in digital heritage preservation with a proposal to create a unified Karnataka Digital Heritage Portal .
    • Role : it will integrate manuscripts, rare printed works, archival records and other cultural resources on a single platform.
    • Launched by : The initiative, led jointly by the Oriental Research Institute (ORI), Mysuru, and the Karnataka State Archives.
    • It aligns with the Union government’s Digital India Mission and the National Mission for Manuscripts.

    Did you know?

    ●    The  Oriental Research Institute (ORI), Mysuru houses more than 70,000 manuscripts and 45,000 rare printed works, including the Arthashastra, Aryabhatiya, Natya Shastra and Sritattvanidhi.

    ●       Digitisation projects worth over ₹2.15 crore, undertaken with the Bengaluru Mythic Society and Save Our Country Foundation

    ●       Note – Bengaluru mythic society established in 1909 ( asked in psi 402)

  • CFTRI to develop foods for astronauts, athletes, and ageing population

    CFTRI to develop foods for astronauts, athletes, and ageing population

    News –

    • The Mysuru-based Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI) has now shifted its focus to developing advanced food technologies.
    • These include foods for astronauts (space foods), endurance-enhancing foods for sportspersons (sports foods), and nutrition-rich foods for the elderly (geriatric foods).

    Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI)

    • It is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), New Delhi.
    • It is located in Mysuru, Karnataka.
    • The institute was established on October 21, 1950.
    • Mandate – It is a leading center for research and development in food science and technology
  • Supreme Court on Rohingya Deportation Case | Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) | Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage (CCUS) | WHO Backs Use of GLP-1 Drugs For Weight Loss | Samagra Shiksha Scheme | Malaria Parasites

    Supreme Court on Rohingya Deportation Case

    Syllabus: GS2/Governance/IR

    In News

    • The Supreme Court heard a habeas corpus petition by activists alleging disappearance of several Rohingya persons who were in Delhi Police custody since May.

    Rohingya Crisis

    • Rohingya – They are an ethnic group largely comprising Muslims who predominantly live in the Western Myanmar province of Rakhin
    • In Myanmar, they are classified as illegal migrants and foreigners residents.

    Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees

    • It is also known as the 1951 Refugee Convention.
    • It is a United Nations multilateral treaty which asserts that a refugee should not be returned to a country where they face serious threats to their life or freedom.
    • India’s membership – India is not a signatory to this Convention.

    International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) 

    • Adopted in – It is a multilateral treaty adopted by the United Nations in 1966.
    • The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial.

    India’s Stand on Rohingyas

    • Operation Insaniyat: In 2017, India launched “Operation Insaniyat” to provide relief assistance for the refugee camps in Bangladesh.

    Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)

    Syllabus: GS3/Economy

    Context

    • Recently, the Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance warned that systemic inefficiencies and structural delays are undermining India’s Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) effectiveness.

    Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code 2016

    • It provides a time-bound process for resolving insolvency in companies and among individuals.
    • Insolvency definition – It is a situation where individuals or companies are unable to repay their outstanding debt.
    • Bankruptcy definition – It is a situation whereby a court of competent jurisdiction has declared a person or other entity insolvent, having passed appropriate orders to resolve it and protect the rights of the creditors. It is a legal declaration of one’s inability to pay off debts.
    • Significance – It aims to remove bottlenecks, streamline the corporate insolvency resolution process and protect the last mile funding in order to boost investment in financially distressed sectors.

    Adjudicating authority

    • National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) for companies and LLPs.
    • Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT) for individuals and partnership firms.

    National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

    • Established under – It is a quasi-judicial body constituted under section 408 of the Companies Act, 2013 in 2016.
    • Recommendation – The tribunal was established based on the recommendation of the Balakrishna Eradi committee on the law relating to insolvency and the winding up of companies.
    • Objective – The tribunal deals with matters mainly related to companies Act and insolvency law.

    Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage (CCUS)

    Syllabus: GS3/Environment

    Context

    • The first of its kind R&D Roadmap to Enable India’s Net Zero Targets through Carbon Capture, Utilization and Storage (CCUS) was launched.

    Do you know?

    • India is the 3rd largest emitter of CO2 in the world after China and the US, with estimated annual emissions of about6 gigatonne per annum (gtpa).
    • The Government of India has committed to reducing CO2 emissions by 50% by 2050 and reaching net zero by 2070.

    Carbon Capture, Utilization, and Storage (CCUS):

    • Capturing CO₂ from industrial plants/power plants or emission sources; then either using the CO₂ (utilization) or storing it permanently (storage, e.g. geological storage).
    • Utilization Pathways Envisaged: Converting CO₂ into value-added products — such as green urea (fertilizer), building materials (concrete, aggregates), chemicals (methanol, ethanol), polymers/bioplastics, aggregates for construction, etc.

    WHO Backs Use of GLP-1 Drugs For Weight Loss

    Syllabus: GS2/Health

    In News

    • The World Health Organization (WHO) has released its first guideline on the use of Glucagon-Like Peptide-1 (GLP-1) therapies for treating obesity.

    GLP-1 therapies

    • GLP-1 therapies (glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists) are a class of medications that mimic the natural GLP-1 hormone, which helps regulate blood sugar and appetite.

    Obesity

    • It is a chronic complex disease defined by excessive fat deposits.
    • It can lead to increased risk of type 2 diabetes and heart disease, it can affect bone health and reproduction.
    • It increases the risk of certain cancers and influences the quality of living, such as sleeping or moving.
    • As per NFHS-5, 24% of Indian women and 23% of Indian men are obese.

    Samagra Shiksha Scheme

    Syllabus: GS2/Welfare Schemes

    In News

    • Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan reiterated that States must meet the Samagra Shiksha scheme’s conditions to receive Central funds.

    Samagra Shiksha Scheme

    • Launched in – 2018-19
    • Financing – Centrally Sponsored Scheme
    • Objective – to provide equitable, inclusive, and quality education from pre-school to class 12.
    • Features – It supports States and UTs through interventions such as composite school grants, libraries, sports, free uniforms and textbooks, ICT initiatives, remedial teaching, and leadership development.
    • Significance – The scheme is aligned with NEP 2020

    Malaria Parasites

    Syllabus: GS2/ Health

    Context

    • A recent Nature Physics study reveals that malaria sporozoites, the infectious forms injected by mosquitoes, move through human skin using right-handed helical (corkscrew) paths.

    Malaria

    • Responsible pathogen – Malaria is an acute febrile illness caused by Plasmodium parasites.
    • Vector – It spreads from people to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. It is preventable and curable.
    • Transmission – Malaria is not contagious and cannot spread from one person to another; the disease is transmitted through the bites of female Anopheles mosquitoes.
    • Five species of parasites can cause malaria in humans and 2 of these species Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax – pose the greatest threat.

    Symptoms

    • Infants, children under 5 years, pregnant women, travelers and people with HIV or AIDS are at higher risk. Severe symptoms include:
      • extreme tiredness and fatigue
      • impaired consciousness
      • multiple convulsions
      • difficulty breathing
      • dark or bloody urine
      • jaundice (yellowing of the eyes and skin)
      • abnormal bleeding.

    Initiatives to Control Malaria by WHO

    • WHO’s Global technical strategy for malaria 2016–2030 – It aims to reduce malaria case incidence and mortality rates by at least 40% by 2020, at least 75% by 2025 and at least 90% by 2030 against a 2015 baseline.
    • ‘E-2025 Initiative’: The WHO has identified 25 countries with the potential to eradicate malaria by 2025 under the initiative.
    • High Burden to High Impact (HBHI) initiative: WHO has initiated the initiative in 11 high malaria burden countries, including India.

    Indian Government Initiatives to Control Malaria

    • National target – The Government of India set a target to eliminate malaria in India by 2027.
    • National Framework for Malaria Elimination (NFME) – It has been developed and launched in 2016 aligned with the Global Technical Strategy (GTS) for malaria elimination 2016-2030.
    • Malaria Elimination Research Alliance-India (MERA-India): It was established by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) as a conglomeration of partners working on malaria control.

    PM Internship Scheme

    Syllabus: GS2/Schemes

    Context

    • The PM Internship Scheme’s pilot project has exceeded its target of providing 1.25 lakh internship opportunities in a year.

    Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme

    • Objective: To provide internship opportunities to youth in leading companies, bridging the gap between academic knowledge and practical skills.
    • Ministry: Ministry of Corporate Affairs
    • Duration: The internship lasts for 12 months.
    • Stipend: Interns will receive a monthly stipend of ₹5,000 for the entire year.
    • Eligibility Criteria: Must be an Indian citizen.
      • Must be aged between 21-24 years.
      • Should not be employed full-time or engaged in full-time education.

    Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) Gets Navratna status

    Syllabus: GS3/Economy

    Context

    • Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL) has been accorded ‘Navratna’ status.
    • It becomes the 27th Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) to be accorded the status.

    Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL)

    • Location-It is a petroleum refinery situated at Numaligarh in Golaghat district of Assam.
    • India’s central public sector enterprises (CPSEs) are classified into three major categories – Miniratna, Navratna and Maharatna CPSEs.

    Classification

    • Miniratna Status: CPSEs are put in two sub-categories under the Miniratna status – Miniratna-I and Miniratna – II.
    • Navratna status: PSUs that have a Miniratna-I status and have obtained an “Excellent” or “Very Good” MoU rating in three out of the last five years.
    • Maharatna status: A PSU is eligible for being granted a “Maharatna” status, in case it meets the following criteria:
    1. Should have a “Navratna” status
    2. Should be listed on the Indian stock exchanges
    3. Should be compliant with minimum shareholding norms
    4. Average annual turnover of more than ₹25,000 crore and average annual net worth of over ₹15,000 crore in the last three years
    • Average annual net profit of over ₹5,000 crore in the last three years along with significant global presence.
    • BHEL, BPCL, Coal India, GAIL, HPCL, Indian Oil, NTPC, ONGC are some of the Maharatna PSUs.

    State of the World’s Land and Water Resources for Food and Agriculture (SOLAW 2025)

    Syllabus: GS3/Environment

    In News

    • The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations recently released The State of the World’s Land and Water Resources for Food and Agriculture (SOLAW 2025).

    State of the World’s Land and Water Resources for Food and Agriculture (SOLAW)

    • Publishing organization – Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
    • It is a report on land and water management, aimed at promoting sustainable use to achieve food security and rural development.

    Latest Findings

    • The report warns that agriculture must produce 50% more food by 2050 to meet global demand, but this will intensify pressure on already strained land, soil, and water resources.
    • Agriculture now covers one-third of Earth’s land and uses 72% of global freshwater, leading to water scarcity, groundwater overuse, and degradation of over 1.6 billion hectares of land, much of it farmland.
    • This cycle of degraded soils, declining water, and deforestation is undermining agriculture’s foundations and weakening food system resilience.

    Dr Rajendra Prasad

    Syllabus: GS1/ Famous Personalities

    Context

    • The President of India, paid tributes to Dr Rajendra Prasad, the first President of India, on his birth anniversary.

    Early Life and Education

    • Birth: He was born in 1884 in the Siwan district of Bihar.
    • Education: He joined Presidency College, Calcutta, where he pursued his undergraduate studies. In 1915, he completed his Master of Law (LLM) with Honours.

    Role in the Freedom Movement

    • Champaran Satyagraha (1917): Gandhiji’s call brought him to Champaran. This marked a turning point, inspiring him towards national service.
    • Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22): Gave up his successful law practice and founded the National College in Patna (1921).
    • Stood firmly with Gandhiji after the Chauri Chaura incident.
    • Salt Satyagraha (1930): Led the Salt Satyagraha in Bihar at Patna’s Nakhas Ponds, where volunteers made salt and courted arrest.
    • Congress President: He presided over the Bombay session of the INC in 1934. Following the resignation of Subhash Chandra Bose as the President of the Congress in 1939, He was elected as President.
    • In July 1946, when the Constituent Assembly was established to frame the Constitution of India, he was elected its President.
    • He was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1962 for his exemplary service.

    Committees of Constituent Assembly chaired by Rajendra Prasad

    1. Committee on the Rules of Procedure
    2. Steering Committee
    3. Finance and Staff Committee
    4. Ad hoc Committee on the National Flag

    Literary Contributions

    1. Satyagraha at Champaran (1922)
    2. India Divided (1946)
    3. Atmakatha (1946)
    4. Mahatma Gandhi and Bihar, Some Reminiscences (1949)
    5. Bapu Ke Kadmon Mein (1954)
  • ‘Hygiene on Go’

    APMC to build state-of-the-art fruit and vegetable market

    In news –

    • ‘Hygiene on Go’, a Mobile sanitation vehicle for police personnel launched in Bengaluru.

    About the ‘Hygiene on Go’:

    • Aim : In a bid to improve the working conditions of the Bengaluru Traffic Police (BTP) personnel.
    • Launched by : Department of Home Affairs. It’s a first-of-its-kind mobile sanitation vehicle exclusively for the Bengaluru City Police.
    • Coverage area : The vehicles will run from 8.30 a.m. to 7 p.m. along three major traffic-heavy routes – Thanisandra, Adugodi, and Mysuru Road, covering 91 designated halting points to ensure timely and reliable access for personnel on duty.
    • Components : The vehicles will feature separate washrooms for male and female police officers. They will also have exterior CCTV coverage, GPS tracking, and an LED display carrying road safety messages.
    • Benefits :  Mobile sanitation arrangement is very beneficial, especially for women, because washrooms are much more easily accessible for men than for women.
  • India’s Commitment to Disability Rights | Jiyo Parsi Scheme | Jal Jeevan Mission | Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) | Navy’s new category in Indian Maritime Doctrine 2025

    India’s Commitment to Disability Rights

    Syllabus: GS1/ Society

    Context

    • The International Day of Persons with Disabilities (IDPD) is observed annually on December 3.
    • Aim – to promote the rights and well-being of people with disabilities.
    • Theme 2025: “Fostering disability-inclusive societies for advancing social progress.”

    India’s Commitment to Disability Rights

    • Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (2006) was adopted to ensure equal opportunity for PwDs.
    • According to Census 2011, there are 2.68 crore persons with disabilities in India which constitute 21 percent of the total population.

    Constitutional Provisions

    • Article 21: Guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the right to live with dignity.
    • Article 41 (DPSP): Right to work, education, and public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disability.
    • Seventh Schedule: The subject of “relief of the disabled and unemployable” is listed under the state list, giving state governments jurisdiction over these matters.

    India’s Legal and Policy Framework for Disability Rights

    • The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 was enacted replacing the Persons with Disabilities Act of 1995.
    • India, as a signatory to the UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD), is committed to building an accessible and inclusive society.

    Government Initiatives and Schemes

    • Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign): Launched in 2015, the Campaign addresses long-standing barriers faced by persons with disabilities.
    • The Divyangjan Card, also known as the E-Ticketing Photo Identity Card (EPICS), is a railway identity card for people with disabilities that allows them to get concessions on train travel.
    • The Unique ID for Persons with Disabilities project is being implemented to create a national database of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs)
    • PM-DAKSH – It is a one-stop hub connecting persons with disabilities, training institutes, employers, and job aggregators under the national skill & employment ecosystem.
    • Promotion of Indian Sign Language (ISL): The Indian Sign Language Research and Training Centre (ISLRTC), set up in 2015 under DEPwD, serves as the nodal institution for advancing ISL across India.
    • In 2024, Government launched PM e-vidya Channel 31 on DTH, exclusively dedicated to ISL training for hearing-impaired students, special educators, and interpreters.

    Jiyo Parsi Scheme

    Syllabus: GS1/ Society, GS2/ Social Justice

    Context

    • The Ministry of Minority Affairs (MoMA), organised a comprehensive Advocacy and Outreach Workshop in Mumbai to promote the Jiyo Parsi Scheme.

    Parsi Community in India

    • According to the 2011 Census of India, the Parsi population in the country was 57,264.
    • This represented a significant decrease of approximately 22% from the 2001 census figure of 69,601.

    Jiyo Parsi Scheme

    • Launched in – 2013-14
    • Objective – to reverse the declining trend of Parsi population by adopting a scientific protocol and structured interventions.

    The scheme has three components:

    • Medical Assistance: Provides financial aid for infertility treatments such as IVF, ICSI, surrogacy, and post-conception care.
    • Advocacy: Provides for counselling of couples with fertility issues
    • Health of the Community: Offers monthly financial support to Parsi couples with children as well as to dependent elderly members.

    Jal Jeevan Mission

    Syllabus:GS2/Governance

    In News

    • Uttar Pradesh reported the highest number of complaints and constituted about 84% of the total complaints received over financial irregularities and poor quality of work under the Jal Jeevan Mission.

    Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)

    • Launched in – 2019
    • Objective to provide Functional Household Tap Connections
    • Significance – to ensure 55 litres per capita per day of safe drinking water to all rural households by 2024.
    • However, due to implementation challenges, the deadline has now been extended to 2028.
    • Nodal Ministry – Ministry of Jal Shakti.
    • Financing  – Central sponsored scheme

    Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)

    Syllabus: GS3/ Economy

    In News

    • RBI’s 2025 list confirms that State Bank of India, HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank continue as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D‑SIBs).

    Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)

    • D-SIBs are banks considered “too big to fail.”
    • Their collapse can trigger system-wide financial instability, so they are placed under special regulation and higher supervision.
    • Concept introduced globally after the 2008 Global Financial Crisis.
    • Based on Basel-III guidelines, RBI released the D-SIB framework in 2014, it identifies banks based on: Size (Total exposures), interconnectedness, substitutability (difficulty of replacing services) & complexity.

    Navy’s new category in Indian Maritime Doctrine 2025

    ಭಾರತೀಯ ಕಡಲ ಸಿದ್ಧಾಂತ 2025

    Syllabus: GS3/Defence

    In News

    • The Indian Navy’s Maritime Doctrine 2025, released by Chief of Naval Staff Admiral Dinesh Tripathi.

    Indian Maritime Doctrine

    • It is a foundational document guiding the Indian Navy in protecting India’s sovereignty, securing trade routes.
    • It acts as the “first responder in the maritime domain” in the Indian Ocean Region and beyond..
    • It was First released in 2004, revised in 2009 and amended in 2015.

    Key Highlights of the Indian Maritime Doctrine 2025

    • The 2025 edition reflects major shifts in the geopolitical environment and India’s strategic outlook, focusing on modern security challenges and national development goals.
    • Formal Recognition of “No-War, No-Peace”: For the first time, the doctrine formally recognizes the “no-war, no-peace” category as a distinct operational phase between peace and full-scale war.
    • Emphasis on Jointness and Integration: The doctrine prioritizes interoperability and integration across the Army, Navy, and Air Force,
    • It aligns with national visions such as Viksit Bharat 2047, Sagarmala, PM Gati Shakti, Maritime India Vision 2030, Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047 and MAHASAGAR.

    Additional Information –

    • Viksit Bharat 2047 (Developed India by 2047): India’s vision to become a developed nation by its 100th year of independence, focusing on economic, social, and environmental progress.
    • Sagarmala Programme: A flagship program to modernize ports, develop coastal communities, and create efficient logistics, reducing costs and boosting trade.
    • PM Gati Shakti: A national master plan for integrated, multimodal connectivity (rail, road, ports, waterways, aviation) to create efficient economic corridors.
    • Maritime India Vision 2030 (MIV 2030): A roadmap for the maritime sector to enhance capacity, modernize ports, boost shipbuilding, and promote cruise tourism by 2030.
    • Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision 2047: Extends MIV 2030, aiming for India to be a global maritime hub by 2047, focusing on new mega-ports, shipbuilding clusters, and green port development (Harit Sagar).
    • MAHASAGAR (Mutual and Holistic Advancement for Security and Growth Across Regions): An overarching vision and doctrine promoting comprehensive maritime security, economic growth, and environmental sustainability in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).
  • E-swathu 2.0 | Michael Cunha commission | Raj Bhavan renamed as ‘Lok Bhavan

    E-swathu 2.0

    News –

    • The state government launched e-swathu 2.0 to provide convenience to property owners in rural areas to get their documents.

    E-swathu 2.0:

        • Aim : to bring all rural properties into a single digital database, regularise unlisted holdings, and strengthen transparent property‑tax collection.
        • Purpose:‑Swathu 2.0 is Karnataka’s upgraded online system for digitising rural property records and issuing e‑Khata in Gram Panchayat areas.
        • Nodal agency – It is implemented by the Department of Rural Development and Panchayat Raj Department through Gram Panchayats and integrated with the Panchatantra software.
        • Property owners in Gram Panchayat limits can apply (via their Panchayat) for e‑Khata and Forms 9/11A/11B by submitting title documents, ID/address proof and supporting records.
        • Benefits : Expected outcomes include
        • Increase in Panchayat and state revenue from rural property tax.

    Michael Cunha commission

    • The Inquiry Commission, headed by former Karnataka High Court Judge Justice John, submitted its report on the circumstances leading to the death of COVID patients at the Chamarajanagar District Hospital to Chief Minister Siddaramaiah

    Raj Bhavan renamed as ‘Lok Bhavan

    News :

    • The Governor’s official residence in Karnataka has been renamed as ‘Lok Bhavan’.
    • The change is made in accordance with communication from the Union Ministry of Home Affairs and has been approved by the Governor of Karnataka.

    Additional Information-

    • In July 2024, two important halls inside Rashtrapati Bhavan were renamed by President Droupadi Murmu:
    • Durbar Hall Ganatantra Mandap (to reflect the idea of “Republic” instead of the colonial term “Durbar”).​
    • Ashok Hall → Ashok Mandap (to emphasise Indian cultural roots and the symbolism of Ashoka/Ashok tree)

    BWSSB wins award for water management

    • Award Name: Geospatial Excellence Award for Water Management
    • Awardee: The Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board (BWSSB)
    • Issuing Authority: GeoSmart India
    • Place of Event: Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi
  • National Strategy For Financial Inclusion 2025–30 | Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) | The Central Excise (Amendment) Bill, 2025 | Sanchar Saathi App | Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) | Heron Mk II UAVs

    National Strategy For Financial Inclusion 2025–30

    Syllabus: GS3/ Economy

    Context

    • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) 2025–30, outlining a five-year plan (Panch-Jyoti) to deepen and widen financial inclusion in India.

    Strategic Pillars of the Panch-Jyoti

    1. Enhancing Financial Services: Provide equitable, responsible, and affordable financial services for households and micro-enterprises.
    2. Gender-Sensitive Inclusion: Implement women-centric strategies and support vulnerable and underserved groups.
    3. Linking Livelihoods and Finance: Integrate skill development and livelihood programmes with formal financial services.
    4. Financial Education: Use financial literacy to promote responsible financial behaviour and discipline.
    5. Consumer Protection: Strengthen customer protection and grievance redressal mechanisms for better reliability and accessibility.

    Government initiatives for financial inclusion

    • Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY): It was launched in 2015, to support small and micro enterprises with loans up to ₹10 lakh.
    • Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) – It was launched by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to track the process of ensuring access to financial services.
    • Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY): Launched in 2015, PMSBY is an accident insurance scheme covering death and disability.
    • Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY): Launched in 2015, PMJJBY is a government-backed life insurance scheme.
    • Atal Pension Yojana (APY): It was launched in 2015 and provides social security to unorganised sector workers.
    • Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): Launched in 2014, PMJDY aimed to bring the unbanked into the formal financial system by expanding access to savings accounts, credit, remittance, insurance, and pensions.

    Biological Weapons Convention (BWC)

    Syllabus: GS2/Global Grouping in India’s Interest; GS3/Security

    Context

    • 50 Years of Biological Weapons Convention (BWC)

    Bioterrorism

    • Definition – It refers to the deliberate release of biological agents — such as bacteria, viruses, or toxins — to cause illness or death among humans, animals, or plants.
    • Examples – Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), Variola major (smallpox), and toxins like botulinum.
    • The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) serves as the key international treaty prohibiting the development, production, and possession of biological weapons.

    Biological Weapons Convention (BWC)

    • It was established and entered into force on March 26, 1975.
    • Uniqueness – It is the first multilateral disarmament treaty to ban an entire category of weapons of mass destruction.
    • Objective – It prohibits the development, production, acquisition, transfer, stockpiling, and use of biological and toxin weapons.
    • Implementation United Nations Office for Disarmament Affairs (UNODA).
    • Membership: 189 countries including India.

    The Central Excise (Amendment) Bill, 2025

    Syllabus: GS2/ Polity and Governance

    Context

    • The Central Excise (Amendment) Bill, 2025 was introduced in Lok Sabha on December 1, 2025.

    The Central Excise (Amendment) Bill, 2025

    • The Bill seeks to amend the Central Excise Act, 1944.
    • The Act provides for the levy and collection of central excise duties on goods manufactured or produced in India.
    • The Bill increases central excise duty on unmanufactured tobacco, manufactured tobacco, tobacco products, and tobacco substitutes.
    • Unmanufactured tobacco (such as sun-cured tobacco leaves) from 64% to 70%.

    Sanchar Saathi App

    Syllabus: GS2/Government Initiatives

    Context

    • Department of Telecommunications (DoT) has directed phone makers to pre-install the Sanchar Saathi app on devices sold from March 2026 onwards.

    Sanchar Saathi

    • Launched by – Department of Telecommunications
    • Objective to help users report and protect against mobile related fraud and theft.

    Key Features

    • Chakshu: Users report suspected fraud via calls, SMS, or WhatsApp, targeting scams like fake KYC updates.​
    • IMEI Tracking and Blocking: Tracks and blocks lost/stolen phones nationwide across all telecom networks.​
    • Verify Mobile Handset Genuineness: Checks if a device is authentic using IMEI or barcode scan.​
    • Report Masked International Calls: Flags calls from abroad disguised as local (+91 followed by 10 digits).​
    • Know Your Internet Service Provider: Searches wireline ISPs by PIN code, address, or name.​

    Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)

    Syllabus: GS2/Welfare Schemes

    In News

    • PM VIKAS is uplifting minority communities through skill development and  promoting entrepreneurship .

    Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)

    • Financing – Central Sector Scheme
    • Implementation – Ministry of Minority Affairs
    • It converges five erstwhile schemes vi ‘Seekho Aur Kamao’, ‘Nai Manzil’, ‘Nai Roshni’ and ‘USTTAD’ & ‘Hamari Dharohar’ .
    • Aim – It focuses on upliftment of six notified minority communities through skill development; entrepreneurship and leadership of minority women; and education support for school dropouts.

    Do you know?

    • Six officially recognized minority groups in India —Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Jains, and Zoroastrians (Parsis)—on socio-economic fronts.

    Heron Mk II UAVs

    Syllabus: GS3/ Defence

    Context

    • India has initiated the procurement of Heron MK-II drones from Israel under emergency provisions invoked after Operation Sindoor.

    Heron Mk II UAVs

    • Developer: Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI)
    • Capability: The Heron Mk II is a medium-altitude, long-endurance (MALE) UAV.
    • It can carry close to 500 kg of payload and sustain more than 24 hours of continuous flight.
  • Objective type Multiple choice Question with key answers on State issues

    Objective type Multiple choice Question with key answers on State issues

    1). Consider the following statements about the high-level committee for Bengaluru’s waste management:

    1. It has been formed to implement an end-to-end solid waste management (SWM) system in the city and complete privatization of waste disposal services.
    2. The committee will be headed by the Additional Chief Secretary of the Urban Development Department.
    3. The Bruhat Bengaluru Mahanagara Palike (BBMP) Commissioner will act as Vice-President of the committee.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. All 1, 2 and 3

     

    2). Consider the following statements about the Friends of Police Mission:

    1. It is aimed at strengthening community policing and youth participation in crime prevention.
    2. The initiative aims to enroll two lakh students to support the police.
    3. It is only an awareness programme without any active role in assisting the police.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. All 1, 2 and 3

     

    3). Assertion (A): E‑Swathu 2.0 strengthens transparent property-tax collection in rural Karnataka.

    Reason (R): By digitising property records and issuing e‑Khata, the system reduces disputes and ensures easier tracking of properties.

    Choose the correct answer using the code below:

    1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is true, but R is false
    4. A is false, but R is true

     

    4). With reference to the Michael Cunha Commission constituted by the Karnataka government, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It is a judicial commission of inquiry appointed under the Commission of Inquiry Act, 1952.
    2. It investigated the June 2025 Chinnaswamy Stadium stampede that occurred during RCB’s IPL victory celebrations.
    3. Its report led to recommendations that a stadium committee be formed by the Supreme Court of India.

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. All 1, 2 and 3

     

    5). Consider the following statements:

    1. The Bangalore Water Supply and Sewerage Board (BWSSB) won the Geospatial Excellence Award for Water Management.
    2. The award was issued by GeoSmart India.
    3. The award recognises outstanding initiatives in urban solid waste management.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 2 only

     

    6). Consider the following statements about ‘Hygiene on Go’:

    1. It is a mobile sanitation vehicle exclusively for Bengaluru Police personnel.
    2. It was launched by the Home Department of Karnataka.
    3. Its primary aim is to improve the working conditions of Bengaluru Traffic Police personnel.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    7). Consider the following statements about Central Food Technological Research Institute (CFTRI):

    1. It is a constituent laboratory of the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
    2. The institute is located in Mysuru, Karnataka.
    3. CFTRI recently shifted it’s focus to develop advanced food technologies, which includes foods for astronauts, athletes and elderly.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 2 only

     

    8). The Karnataka Digital Heritage Portal is being jointly led by:

    1. Archaeological Survey of India and Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts.
    2. Oriental Research Institute (ORI), Mysuru and Karnataka State Archives.
    3. National Archives of India and Sahitya Akademi.
    4. University of Mysore and CSIR.

     

    9). With reference to Karnataka’s role in India’s Semiconductor and ESDM ecosystem, consider the following statements:

    1. Karnataka contributes around 10% to India’s national electronics output.
    2. The state hosts more than 100 fabless chip design houses.
    3. Karnataka accounts for the largest share of semiconductor fabrication plants in India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    10). With reference to the Karnataka Hate Speech and Hate Crimes (Prevention) Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:

    1. The Bill criminalises both the commission and attempted commission of hate speech.
    2. Hate crime under the Bill applies only to acts against living persons.
    3. The Bill prescribes a minimum punishment of one year imprisonment for first-time offences.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    11). Consider the following statements regarding Karnataka’s Gross State Value Added (GSVA):

    1. The services sector contributes more than two-thirds of the State’s GSVA.
    2. Agriculture contributes a larger share to GSVA than industry.
    3. Bengaluru Urban district is the single largest contributor to Karnataka’s GSDP.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    12). Which of the following correctly describes the beneficiary profile of the SUCHI Scheme?

    1. All adolescent girls aged 10–18 years in Karnataka.
    2. Adolescent girls enrolled in private schools and colleges.
    3. All women between menarche and menopause.
    4. Adolescent girls aged 10–18 years enrolled in government or government-aided institutions.

     

    13). Consider the following statements regarding the leadership structure of disaster management authorities in India:

    1. The National Disaster Management Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
    2. The Karnataka State Disaster Management Authority is chaired by the Governor of the State.
    3. District Disaster Management Authorities are

    chaired by the elected Mayor of the district.

    How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only One Statement
    2. Only Two Statements
    3. All the Three Statements
    4. None of The Above

     

    14). With reference to the ‘Accident Emergency Response Vehicles’ initiative of KSRTC, consider the following statements:

    1. The initiative aims to provide rapid assistance during road accidents and vehicle breakdowns involving State-run buses.
    2. The emergency response vehicles are designed to function as mobile workshops.
    3. In its initial phase, the initiative covers all district headquarters of Karnataka.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    15). Which agency has been designated as the State Implementing Agency for the Traveller Nooks project?

    1. Archaeological Survey of India.
    2. Karnataka Tourism Infrastructure Ltd. (KTIL)
    3. Karnataka State Tourism Development Corporation.
    4. Hampi World Heritage Area Management Authority.

     

    16). The Translational AI for Networked Universal Healthcare (TANUH) Foundation has been established at:

    1. IIT Madras
    2. AIIMS Delhi
    3. Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru
    4. National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS)

     

    17). Who headed the State-appointed inquiry committee that examined irregularities in the

    Kalyana Karnataka Human Resource, Agriculture and Cultural (KKHRAC) Society?

    1. Justice Santosh Hegde
    2. Sudhir Kumar
    3. T.M. Vijay Bhaskar
    4. R.S. Sharma

     

    18). The Scheduled Castes Sub Plan (SCSP) and Tribal Sub Plan (TSP) in Karnataka are governed by which legislation?

    1. Karnataka Social Justice Act, 2010
    2. Karnataka Budget Allocation Act, 2017
    3. National SC/ST Finance Act, 2014
    4. Karnataka Scheduled Castes Sub-Allocation & Tribal-Sub Allocation Act, 2013

     

    19). Who has been appointed as the head of the technical team formed for the Mekedatu project?

    1. K.G. Mahesh
    2. Sudhir Kumar
    3. R.S. Sharma
    4. M.B. Patil

     

    20). With reference to the Karnataka Social Boycott (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Bill, 2025, MOST directly seeks to uphold which of the following constitutional values?

    1. Article 14 – Equality before law.
    2. Article 17 – Abolition of untouchability.
    3. Article 21 – Right to life and personal liberty.

    How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only One Statement
    2. Only Two Statements
    3. All the Three Statements
    4. None of The Above

     

    21). With reference to Supercomputing India 2025 (SCI 2025), consider the following statements:

    1. It is India’s first comprehensive conference covering high-performance computing, artificial intelligence, and quantum computing.
    2. The maiden edition was held at the Manipal Institute of Technology (MIT), Yelahanka.
    3. The conference was organised by the C-DAC, under the aegis of the National Supercomputing Mission.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 2 and 3 only

     

    22). With reference to the scope of applicability of the Karnataka Platform-Based Gig Workers’ Social Security and Welfare Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:

    1. The Act applies to every aggregator or platform operating services listed in the Schedule within Karnataka.
    2. It applies automatically to all gig workers engaged by platforms, irrespective of registration.
    3. Registration of gig workers with the Welfare Board is a prerequisite for coverage under the Act.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    23). The theme of National Pollution Control Day 2025 is:

    1. “Beat Air Pollution”
    2. “Clean Environment, Healthy Life”
    3. “Sustainable Living for a Greener Future”
    4. “Zero Carbon India”

     

    24). Consider the following pairs:

    Military Exercise

    Countries Involved with India

    1. Harimau Shakti

    Malaysia

    2. Ekuverin

    Mauritius

    3. Surya Kiran

    Nepal

    4. Desert Cyclone

    Saudi Arabia

    5. AviaIndra

    Russia

    How many of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

    1. Only Two
    2. Only Three
    3. Only Four
    4. All

     

    25). With reference to the National Energy Conservation Award 2025, consider the following statements:

    1. The award is conferred by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power.
    2. The award recognizes only large-scale industrial units and not transport or railway sectors.
    3. Miyana Railway Station saved 9,687 units of electricity by implementing LED lighting, energy-efficient BLDC fans, and smart lighting circuits.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    26). With reference to Biodiversity Heritage Sites, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. The power to notify a Biodiversity Heritage Site vests with the State Government. India’s first Biodiversity Heritage Site was Nallur Tamarind Grove is located in Telangana.
    2. The Biological Diversity Act, 2002 provides the statutory basis for their declaration. They may include terrestrial, inland water, coastal, and marine ecosystems.
    3. The National Biodiversity Authority directly manages all notified BHS.
    4. Community participation through Biodiversity Management Committees is integral to their management.

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 2 and 4 only

     

    27). Match the following Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) with their Location and Significance:

    BHS

    Location

    Significance

    i. Nallur Tamarind Grove

    1. Shivamogga

    a. Wildlife corridor linking Kudremukha and Bhadra.

    ii. Hogrekan Shola Forest

    2. Bengaluru

    b. India’s first Biodiversity Heritage Site.

    iii. Ambaragudda

    3. Chikkamagaluru

    c. Endemic species-rich shola–grassland ecosystem.

    iv.University of Agricultural Sciences (GKVK)

    4. Shivamogga

    d. Urban biodiversity hotspot.

     Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. i-2-b, ii-3-a, iii-1-c, iv-2-d
    2. i-2-b, ii-3-a, iii-4-c, iv-2-d
    3. i-1-b, ii-3-a, iii-4-c, iv-2-d
    4. i-2-d, ii-3-c, iii-4-a, iv-1-b

     

    28). Under the Shuchi–Nanna Maithri initiative, which of the following menstrual hygiene products is distributed?

    1. Disposable sanitary pads
    2. Biodegradable napkins
    3. Menstrual cups
    4. Cloth pads

     

    29). With reference to the sub-classification framework under the Karnataka Scheduled Castes (Sub-classification) Bill, 2025, consider the following pairs:

    Category (Sub-classification)

    Reservation Share

    1. A- Madiga and their related communities.

    7%

    2. B- Holeya and their related communities.

    6%

    3. C- Touchables

    5%

     Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 2 and 3 only

     

    30). The commission whose recommendations form the basis of the Karnataka Scheduled Castes (Sub-classification) Bill, 2025, was headed by:

    1. K.G. Balakrishnan
    2. Usha Mehra
    3. H.N. Nagamohan Das
    4. B.P. Jeevan Reddy

     

    31). With reference to the audit jurisdiction of the CAG of India, consider the following entities:

    1. Union Government departments
    2. State Government departments
    3. Public Sector Undertakings
    4. Non-governmental organisations receiving public funds

    How many of the above is/are subject to audit by the CAG?

    1. Only Two
    2. Only Three
    3. All of the Above
    4. None of the Above

     

    32). Consider the following statements regarding the Tungabhadra Dam:

    1. The Tungabhadra River is the largest tributary of the Krishna River in Karnataka.
    2. It is located at the confluence of Hosapete and Koppal districts in Karnataka.
    3. The reservoir created by the dam is also known as Pampa Sagar.
    4. The dam is India’s tallest masonry dam.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    33). Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Arogya Sethu’ mobile health units initiative of Karnataka:

    1. It aims to deliver primary healthcare services to remote, forested and hilly regions.
    2. The initiative is implemented entirely under the National Health Mission.
    3. It specifically targets constituencies reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
    4. It follows a decentralised, district-level monitoring framework.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    34). Consider the following statements regarding ‘VijAIpatha’, recently seen in the news:

    1. It is a pilot initiative aimed at imparting Artificial Intelligence and STEM education to government school students.
    2. The programme is implemented solely by the Karnataka Department of Education.
    3. It includes training in robotics, coding and digital innovation.
    4. It was inaugurated at a Government Girls’ Pre-University College in Hosapete taluk.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 3 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    35). The KMF is presently exporting its premium Nandini products to which of the following countries?

    1. Canada, UK, Italy, France and Germany.
    2. Qatar, Brunei, Maldives, Singapore, UAE, USA and Australia.
    3. Qatar, Brunei, Australia, New Zealand and Singapore.
    4. Japan, China, South Korea and Thailand.

     

    36). Consider the following statements regarding the “Gruha Arogya” Scheme of Karnataka:

    1. It focuses on early detection and management of Non-Communicable Diseases.
    2. It is implemented entirely through fixed health facilities such as PHCs and CHCs.
    3. It targets individuals aged 30 years and above.
    4. It was initially rolled out as a pilot in the Kolar district.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 2, 3 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    37). With reference to the Kuvempu Rashtriya Puraskar, consider the following statements:

    1. It is awarded to writers contributing to any language included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
    2. The award is presented annually on the birth anniversary of Kuvempu.
    3. The award is instituted and conferred by the Government of Karnataka.
    4. In 2025 the award was presented to Konkani writer Mahabaleshwar Sail and it includes ₹5 lakh cash prize, a silver medal, and a citation.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    38). Which of the following is a literary work of Mahabaleshwar Sail?

    1. Godan
    2. Hawthan
    3. Malgudi Days
    4. Gitanjali

     

    39). The Digital Mobile Planetarium programme is executed by:

    1. ISRO
    2. NCERT
    3. KSTePS
    4. Vigyan Prasar

     

    40). Consider the following ports of Karnataka:

    1. Karwar
    2. Belekeri
    3. Mangaluru
    4. Tadri
    5. Kundapura
    6. Byndoor

    Which of the above are non-major ports covered under the Karnataka Non-major Ports Iron Ore Handling Policy, 2025?

    1. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
    2. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
    3. 2, 3, 4 and 6 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6 only

     

    41). The State Education Policy (SEP) Commission was headed by whom?

    1. Romila Thapar
    2. Sukhdeo Thorat
    3. Bibek Debroy
    4. Yash Pal

     

    42). With reference to the AI-powered ‘Smart Lock’ system introduced in Karnataka, consider the following statements:

    1. It uses artificial intelligence and facial recognition to verify the identity of driving licence applicants.
    2. It has been developed by the Karnataka Transport Department as an in-house technological solution.
    3. It has been integrated as an additional security layer into the Sarathi Parivahan Seva portal.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    43). Consider the following statements regarding fiscal federalism under the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025:

    1. The scheme is proposed as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS).
    2. The Centre will bear a higher share of funding for North-Eastern and Himalayan States/UTs.
    3. States have no role in intra-State allocation of funds once central allocation is made.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    44). Match the following important days with their observing Organizations and Theme:

    Important Days

    Observing Organizations

    Theme

    i. World AIDS Day

    1. FAO

    a. “Combat Ready, Cohesive, Self-Reliant”.

    ii. National Pollution Control Day

    2. WHO / UN

    b. “Sustainable Living for a Greener Future”.

    iii. International Day of Persons with Disabilities

    3. Indian Navy

    c. “Fostering disability inclusive societies for advancing social progress”

    iv. Indian Navy Day

    4. CPCB

    d. “Overcoming disruption, transforming the AIDS response”.

    v. World Soil Day

    5. United Nations

    e. “Healthy Soils for Healthy Cities”.

     Which of the following is the correctly matched set?

    1. i–2–d, ii–4–b, iii–5–c, iv–3–a, v–1–e
    2. i–5–d, ii–4–e, iii–2–c, iv–3–a, v–1–b
    3. i–2–c, ii–1–b, iii–5–d, iv–3–a, v–4–e
    4. i–2–d, ii–1–b, iii–5–c, iv–4–a, v–3–e

     

    45). With reference to National Energy Conservation Day in India, consider the following statements:

    1. It is observed annually to commemorate the enactment of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001.
    2. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Power.
    3. The observance aims at promoting demand-side management and efficient use of energy across sectors.
    4. The theme for 2025 emphasises reduction of fossil fuel consumption exclusively through renewable energy deployment.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 2, 3 and 4 only

     

    46). The 2025 theme of National Mathematics Day is expected to focus primarily on:

    1. Ancient Indian mathematical texts
    2. Mathematics in space exploration
    3. Role of mathematics in innovation, AI, data science, and problem-solving
    4. Mathematics in financial accounting

     

    47). The 2025 theme of Good Governance Day,  “Prashasan Gaon Ki Ore” reflects which of the following principles of good governance?

    1. Decentralisation
    2. Participatory governance
    3. Transparency at the grassroots level
    4. Exclusive top-down administration

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    48). With reference to the BrahMos missile system, consider the following statements:

    1. It is a supersonic cruise missile capable of being launched from land, sea, and air platforms.
    2. It has been jointly developed by India’s DRDO and Russia’s NPOM.

          3. It is designed exclusively for land-attack missions.

          4. It has been inducted into service with both the Indian Army and the Indian Navy.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    49). With reference to INS Aridhaman, consider the following statements:

    1. It is India’s third nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine (SSBN).
    2. It has the same hull design as INS Arihant and INS Arighat.
    3. It is designed to be armed with K-4 submarine-launched ballistic missiles (SLBMs).
    4. It carries 8 missile launch tubes, double the capacity of its predecessors.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

    (b) 1 and 2 only

    (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    50). With reference to the FIFA Peace Prize, consider the following statements:

    1. It was established in 2025 and the inaugural award was presented to the US President Donald Trump on December 5, 2025.
    2. The award recognises exceptional contributions to peace, conflict resolution, and global unity.
    3. The award is issued under the United Nations in collaboration with FIFA.
    4. The award aligns with FIFA’s motto, “Football Unites the World.”

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 2, 3 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    51). The Global Humanitarian Award received by Anant Ambani was issued by:

    1. United Nations Environment Programme
    2. World Wildlife Fund
    3. Greenpeace International
    4. Global Humane Society

     

    52). With reference to the 2025 World Athletics Athletes of the Year awards, consider the following statements:

    1. Sydney McLaughlin-Levrone won both the overall women’s award and the women’s track category.
    2. Mondo Duplantis won the overall men’s award and the men’s field category.
    3. The ceremony was held in Lausanne, Switzerland.
    4. The awards are exclusively given for Olympic performances.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    53). With reference to Sunil Narine’s milestone in T20 cricket, consider the following statements:

    1. He became the third bowler to claim 600 wickets in competitive T20 cricket.
    2. He achieved this milestone while playing for Abu Dhabi Knight Riders in the World ILT20.
    3. Rashid Khan and Dwayne Bravo were the only other two bowlers to have reached 600 wickets before him.
    4. He achieved the milestone on December 3, 2025.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4 only

     

    54). With reference to the 2025 Formula One season, consider the following statements:

    1. Lando Norris won his maiden Drivers’ Championship in 2025.
    2. McLaren secured its first Drivers’ Championship title since 2008.
    3. Max Verstappen finished as the runner-up in the Drivers’ Championship.
    4. McLaren also won the Constructors’ Championship in 2025.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1 and 3 only

     

    55). Who became the world’s youngest FIDE-rated chess player in 2025?

    1. Anish Sarkar
    2. Rameshbabu Praggnanandhaa
    3. Sarwagya
    4. Nihal Sarin

     

    56). With reference to India’s victory in the Squash World Cup 2025, consider the following statements:

    1. India defeated Hong Kong 3-0 to win its maiden Squash World Cup title.
    2. Joshna Chinappa, ranked 79th in the world, won her match against Ka Yi Lee, who was ranked 42 places above her.
    3. The final was the first-ever meeting between India and Hong Kong in a World Cup final.
    4. India hosted the Squash World Cup for the first time in 2025.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 2 and 3 only

     

    57). With reference to the FIDE Circuit, 2025 consider the following statements:

    1. It is a performance-based qualification pathway introduced by FIDE for the Candidates Tournament, 2026.
    2. R. Praggnanandhaa became the only male player to qualify via the FIDE Circuit 2025.
    3. The circuit consists of a fixed set of tournaments notified in advance by FIDE.
    4. The circuit operates on a calendar-year basis.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3 only

     

    58). With reference to the FIH Hockey Men’s Junior World Cup Tamil Nadu 2025, consider the following statements:

    1. Germany won the tournament by defeating Spain. Germany successfully defended the title they had won in the previous edition also.
    2. This was Germany’s 10th appearance in the final of the tournament, marking their record-extending 10th title in the tournament’s history.
    3. Chennai and Madurai jointly hosted the tournament.
    4. India defeated Argentina to secure third place and became first-time podium finishers in the Junior World Cup.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1 and 4 only

     

    59). Consider the following pairs of the best FIFA Football awards, 2025 with the Winners:

    1. FIFA Men’s Player- Ousmane Dembélé
    2. FIFA Women’s Player- Aitana Bonmatí
    3. Puskás Award- Santiago Montiel
    4. FIFA Fan Award- Zakho SC supporters

    Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 2 and 4 only

     

    60). Consider the following pairs of the best FIFA Football award category with the Winners of 2025:

    1. Men’s Goalkeeper- Gianluigi Donnarumma
    2. Women’s Goalkeeper- Hannah Hampton
    3. Men’s Coach- Luis Enrique
    4. Women’s Coach- Aitana Bonmatí

    Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    61). With reference to the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy 2025–26 , consider the following statements:

    1. Jharkhand won their maiden SMAT title by defeating Haryana.
    2. Anukul Roy selected as a player of the match

    He scored 303 runs and took 18 wickets in the tournament.

    1. Ishan Kishan selected as a player of the series

    He scored 101 runs off 49 balls in the final.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    62). With reference to the 2030 Commonwealth Games, consider the following statements:

    1. Ahmedabad will host the centenary edition of the Commonwealth Games. It will return to India after a gap of 20 years.
    2. The first Commonwealth Games were held in the United Kingdom and it will held once every four years.
    3. India has hosted the last Commonwealth Games at New Delhi in 2010 and hosted more than once in the past.
    4. The last edition of the Commonwealth Games

    was held in Birmingham and it includes both Olympic and non-Olympic sports.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 4 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3 only

    KARNATAKA DARSHANA:

    Key answers

    1) B

    2) A

    3) A

    4) C

    5) D

    6) D

    7) A

    8) B

    9) A

    10) C

    11) C

    12) D

    13) A

    14) A

    15) B

    16) C

    17) B

    18) D

    19) A

    20) C

    21) C

    22) B

    23) C

    24) B

    25) B

    26) D

    27) B

    28) C

    29) D

    30) C

    31) C

    32) A

    33) B

    34) A

    35) B

    36) C

    37) A

    38) B

    39) C

    40) A

    41) B

    42) B

    43) A

    44) A

    45) B

    46) C

    47) B

    48) A

    49) A

    50) C

    51) D

    52) A

    53) C

    54) B

    55) C

    56) A

    57) B

    58) B

    59) C

    60) A

    61) C

    62) A

  • National and International MCQ’s

    Practice Questions (Current Affairs From This Magazine)

    1). Consider the following statements regarding HIV transmission:

    1. HIV can be transmitted by mosquito bites if the mosquito has previously bitten an HIV-positive individual.
    2. HIV transmission risk can increase due to the presence of other sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
    3. Breastfeeding by an HIV-positive mother can transmit HIV to the infant.

    How many of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None

     

    2). Match the following HIV/AIDS initiatives with their correct descriptions:

    List – I (HIV/AIDS Initiative)

    List – II (Description)

    a. National AIDS Control Programme

    1. Prevents HIV transmission from infected mother to child.

    b. PPTCT Programme

    2. Reintegration of PLHIV who discontinued ART.

    c. Mission Sampark

    3. National programme to control and treat HIV; Central Sector Scheme.

    d. Project ACCELERATE

    4. Prohibits discrimination against HIV-positive individuals.

    e. HIV/AIDS Act, 2017

    5. Online HIV services through Safe Zindagi portal.

    Choose the correct option:

    1. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
    2. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1, e-5
    3. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5, e-4
    4. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4, e-5

     

    3). Match the following pairs of Nuclear Power Plants with their States (Location):

    Nuclear Power Plants

    States (Location)

    a. Tarapur

    1. Rajasthan

    b. Kudankulam

          2. Tamilnadu

    c. Kakrapar

          3. Gujarat

    d. Rawatbhata

          4. Maharashtra

    How many of the above pairs is/are correct?

    Select the correct option:

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. All

     

    4). With reference to the Ellora Caves, consider the following statements:

    1. The Hindu caves at Ellora were carved earlier than the Buddhist caves.
    2. The Jain caves at Ellora belong to the final phase of architectural development at the site.
    3. The majority of caves at Ellora are Hindu caves.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    5). Consider the following statements regarding the Hornbill Festival of Nagaland:

    1. The festival is celebrated primarily to commemorate the migration history of Naga tribes.
    2. It is held annually at Kisama, a heritage village established by the Government of Nagaland.
    3. The festival coincides with Nagaland’s Statehood Day.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    6). Consider the following statements regarding the UNESCO Executive Board:

    1. It is the highest decision-making body of UNESCO.
    2. Its members are elected by the UNESCO General Conference.
    3. All member states of UNESCO are permanent members of the Executive Board.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 2 and 3 only

     

    7). Consider the following statements regarding the CISF:

    1. The CISF was established under the CISF Act, 1968.
    2. It functions under the Ministry of Defence.
    3. It provides security to the strategic establishments, such as Department of Space, Department of Atomic Energy, etc.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    8). With reference to HANSA-3 aircraft, consider the following statements:

    1. It is India’s first indigenously developed all-composite light aircraft.
    2. It was developed by CSIR–NAL primarily for basic pilot training.
    3. The aircraft incorporates full glass-cockpit avionics for advanced flying training.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    9). Consider the following statements regarding the “International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture” (ITPGRFA):

    1. It is a legally binding treaty adopted under the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
    2. It aims to conserve and sustainably use plant genetic resources for food and agriculture.
    3. It provides for fair and equitable benefit-sharing through a Multilateral System.

    Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    10). Which institution plays a coordinating role in monitoring the implementation of the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (NSFI) 2025–30?

    1. Ministry of Finance
    2. NITI Aayog
    3. Reserve Bank of India
    4. SEBI

     

    11). With reference to India and the Biological Weapons Convention, consider the following statements:

    1. India is a signatory and a State Party to the BWC.
    2. India is obligated to destroy existing biological weapon stockpiles.
    3. India supports peaceful use of biological science under the BWC

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    12). Consider the following features of Sanchar Saathi:

    1. Verification of mobile handset genuineness using IMEI or barcode scanning.
    2. Identification of wireline Internet Service Providers based on geographic parameters.
    3. Automated blocking of all spam calls using artificial intelligence.

    Which of the feature/s listed above are actually provided under Sanchar Saathi?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    13). PM VIKAS represents a convergence of several erstwhile schemes. Which of the following schemes were merged into PM VIKAS?

    1. Seekho Aur Kamao
    2. Nai Manzil
    3. Ujjwala Yojana
    4. USTTAD
    5. Hamari Dharohar

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

     

    14). Consider the following statements regarding minority communities targeted under PM VIKAS:

    1. The scheme applies to minorities notified under the National Commission for Minorities Act.
    2. India officially recognizes six minority communities at the national level.
    3. Zoroastrians (Parsis) are excluded from skill-development components.

    How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only One
    2. Only Two
    3. Only Three
    4. None

     

    15). With reference to the “Heron Mk II” Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV), consider the following statements:

    1. It is developed by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI).
    2. It belongs to the Medium-Altitude Long-Endurance (MALE) category of UAVs.
    3. It is designed primarily for short-range tactical battlefield surveillance.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    16). The theme for IDPD 2025, “Fostering disability-inclusive societies for advancing social progress”, most directly emphasizes which of the following approaches?

    1. Charity-based welfare delivery
    2. Medical model of disability
    3. Rights-based and inclusive development approach
    4. Infrastructure-led urban development

     

    17). With reference to the “Jiyo Parsi Scheme”, consider the following statements:

    1. It was launched during 2013–14 to address demographic concerns of a specific minority community.
    2. It aims to reverse population decline through scientific protocols and structured interventions.
    3. It applies uniformly to all six notified minority communities in India.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    18). Which of the following correctly describes the financial and administrative structure of the Jal Jeevan Mission?

    1. Central Sector Scheme implemented exclusively by the Union Government
    2. Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented through States with cost-sharing
    3. Finance Commission–recommended grant-based programme
    4. Public–Private Partnership–driven initiative

     

    19). The Reserve Bank of India identifies D-SIBs in India based on criteria derived from Basel-III guidelines. These include:

    1. Size (total exposures)
    2. Interconnectedness
    3. Substitutability of services
    4. Profitability performance

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    20). With reference to the Indian Maritime Doctrine, consider the following statements:

    1. It serves as a foundational guiding document for the Indian Navy to protect sovereignty and secure maritime trade routes.
    2. It conceptualizes the Indian Navy as the “first responder” in the maritime domain, particularly in the Indian Ocean Region.
    3. It was first released after the Kargil conflict as part of integrated theatre planning.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    21). With reference to the Rohingya community, consider the following statements:

    1. They are an ethnic group predominantly residing in Myanmar’s Rakhine State.
    2. The Government of Myanmar recognizes them as one of the officially notified ethnic nationalities.
    3. They are largely classified as illegal migrants and foreign residents in Myanmar.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    22). With reference to the adjudicating authorities under the IBC, consider the following pairs:

    Entity

    Adjudicating Authority

    1. Companies

    Debt Recovery Tribunal (DRT)

    2. LLPs

    National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

    3. Individuals

    National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)

    4. Partnership firms

    High Courts

     Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    23). Assertion (A): GLP-1 therapies mimic a naturally occurring hormone involved in metabolic regulation.

    Reason (R): GLP-1 therapies promote weight loss primarily by increasing basal metabolic rate.

    Choose the correct answer:

    1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is true, but R is false
    4. A is false, but R is true

     

    24). Which of the following interventions are explicitly supported under Samagra Shiksha?

    1. Composite school grants and libraries
    2. Free uniforms and textbooks
    3. ICT initiatives and remedial teaching
    4. Vocational skill training for college students

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    25). Consider the following initiatives by WHO to control and eliminate malaria:

    1. Global Technical Strategy for Malaria 2016–2030.
    2. E-2025 Initiative.
    3. High Burden to High Impact (HBHI) Initiative.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 3 only

     

    26). Which of the following eligibility criteria correctly apply to the Prime Minister’s Internship Scheme?

    1. Must be an Indian citizen.
    2. Age should be between 21–24 years.
    3. Must not be employed full-time or engaged in full-time education.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 2 and 3 only

     

    27). With reference to Numaligarh Refinery Ltd (NRL), consider the following statements:

    1. NRL is a petroleum refinery located in Golaghat district of Assam.
    2. NRL has recently been accorded Navratna status, becoming the 27th CPSE with this recognition.
    3. Navratna status allows PSUs to directly list on stock exchanges without prior approval.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    28). Consider the following statements regarding Maharatna PSUs:

    1. Must have Navratna status before becoming eligible.
    2. Must be listed on Indian stock exchanges and compliant with minimum shareholding norms.
    3. Must have average annual net profit of over ₹5,000 crore in the last three years.
    4. All Maharatna PSUs are automatically granted global operations privileges without performance review.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    29). Which of the following organizations is responsible for publishing the “State of the World’s Land and Water Resources for Food and Agriculture” (SOLAW) report?

    1. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
    2. World Bank
    3. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
    4. World Health Organization (WHO)

     

    30). Dr. Rajendra Prasad’s role in the Indian freedom movement included:

    1. Participation in Champaran Satyagraha (1917).
    2. Leading the Salt Satyagraha in Bihar at Patna’s Nakhas Ponds.
    3. Founding the National College in Patna after giving up his law practice.

    How many of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. Only One
    2. Only Two
    3. Only Three
    4. None

     

    31). Which of the following are objectives of PM JI-VAN Scheme?

    1. Encourage 2G ethanol projects using biomass.
    2. Achieve Ethanol Blending Programme (EBP) targets.
    3. Reduce farmers’ income dependency on agriculture.
    4. Contribute to environmental goals like net-zero emissions.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    32). Consider the following biofuel types and source material:

    Biofuel Type

    Source Material

    1. 1G Ethanol

    a. Crop residues and non-edible biomass.

    2. 2G Ethanol

    b. Organic waste and cattle dung.

    3. Biogas/Bio-CNG   

    c. Molasses and sugarcane juice.

     Which of the following is the correct matching?

    1. 1–a, 2–b, 3–c
    2. 1–c, 2–a, 3–b
    3. 1–c, 2–b, 3–a
    4. 1–b, 2–c, 3–a

     

    33). Consider the following threats to vultures in India:

    1. Use of the veterinary drug Diclofenac.
    2. Pesticides such as organochlorines, PCBs, and heavy metals.
    3. Electrocution, habitat loss, and scarcity of food.

    Which of the above is/ are correct threats responsible for vulture population decline?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 2 and 3 only

     

    34). With reference to leprosy in India, consider the following statements:

    1. India reports about 57% of global leprosy cases.
    2. States with the highest prevalence include Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, and Odisha.
    3. The WHO declared India as the first country to eliminate leprosy in 2024.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    35). Which of the following health problems are associated with exposure to inhalable microplastics (iMPs)?

    1. Respiratory disorders
    2. Hormonal and neurological disorders
    3. Increased risk of cancer
    4. Immunity to viral infections

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    36). Which combination of traits makes a species likely to become invasive?

    1. Rapid reproduction
    2. Broad dietary range
    3. High sensitivity to environmental fluctuations
    4. High dispersal ability

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    37). With reference to World Soil Day, consider the following statements:

    1. It is observed every year on December 5.
    2. It is observed by the International Union of Soil Sciences (IUSS).
    3. The theme for 2025 is “Healthy Soils for Healthy Cities”.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    38). Kuno Wildlife Sanctuary is important for:

    1. Reintroduction of Asiatic lions from Gir National Park.
    2. Habitat for Cheetahs in India.
    3. Wetland bird conservation.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    39). With reference to the Cheetah, consider the following statements:

    1. It is the world’s fastest mammal.
    2. Cheetahs can roar like other big cats.
    3. It was the only large carnivore to go extinct in India in 1952.
    4. Asiatic cheetahas are categorized as Critically Endangered.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 4 only

     

    40). The term “Parinirvana” in Buddhism primarily refers to:

    1. Liberation from the cycle of rebirth during one’s lifetime.
    2. Release or freedom after death.
    3. Attaining enlightenment while alive.
    4. Worship of the Buddha after death.

     

    41). Which of the following organizations was founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1923?

    1. Independent Labour Party
    2. Scheduled Castes Federation
    3. Bahishkrit Hitkarini Sabha
    4. Indian National Congress

     

    42). The Poona Pact of 1932 resulted in:

    1. Complete rejection of reserved seats for depressed classes.
    2. Separate electorates for the depressed classes.
    3. Increase of reserved seats for depressed classes in provincial legislatures.
    4. Reservation only in Central Legislature, not provincial legislatures.

     

    43). Match the following water conservation schemes with their objectives:

    Scheme

    Objective

    a. Jal Shakti Abhiyan

    1. Develop and rejuvenate 75 water bodies per district.

    b. Amrit Sarovar Mission

    2. Improve groundwater management in critical areas.

    c. National Aquifer Mapping Program (NAQUIM)

    3. Delineate and study aquifers for sustainable use.

    d. Atal Bhujal Yojana

    4. Water conservation and groundwater recharge in water-stressed districts

    Which of the above is/ are correctly matched?

    Options:

    1. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
    2. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
    3. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
    4. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

     

    44). Match the following military exercises with their respective countries or focus:

    Exercise

    Partner Country

    a. Harimau Shakti

    1. Bilateral exercise between India and Malaysia.

    b. Yudh Abhyas

    2. India–USA joint military exercise.

    c. Vajra Prahar

    3. India–USA special forces exercise.

    d. Indra

    4. India–Russia joint military exercise.

    Which of the above is/ are correctly matched?

    Options:

    1. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    2. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    3. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
    4. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

     

    45). Consider the following statements about the Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme:

    1. It is implemented by DRDO under the Ministry of Defence.
    2. It exclusively supports large public sector defence companies.
    3. The scheme is part of the ‘Make in India’ initiative.
    4. Its primary objective is to promote indigenous defence and dual-use technologies through grants-in-aid.

    Which of the statements is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 2, and 3 only
    2. 1, 3, and 4 only
    3. 2, 3, and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

     

    46). Vande Mataram played a crucial role in India’s freedom struggle. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. It was first sung by Rabindranath Tagore at the 1896 Indian National Congress session.
    2. During the Swadeshi Movement of 1905, it became the anthem of civil resistance.
    3. The first political use of Vande Mataram as a slogan was in 1907.

    Select the correct statement/s

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, and 3

     

    47). Consider the following statements regarding the “Preah Vihear Temple”:

    1. It is an 11th–12th century Khmer shrine located on the Cambodia–Thailand border.
    2. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) awarded sovereignty over the temple to Cambodia in 1962.
    3. The dispute has occasionally led to armed clashes between Cambodia and Thailand in the 21st century.
    4. The temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2, and 3 only
    2. 1, 3, and 4 only
    3. 1, 2, 3, and 4
    4. 2 and 4 only

     

    48). The IMF report “Growing Retail Digital Payments: The Value of Interoperability” mainly highlights the importance of:

    1. Cryptocurrency mining
    2. Interoperability in digital payment systems
    3. Cash-based transactions
    4. Trade finance reforms

     

    49). Consider the following statements regarding the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):

    1. NPCI functions as an umbrella organization for retail payment systems in India.
    2. It was established solely by the Government of India.
    3. NPCI was set up under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
    4. RuPay and BHIM are among the products developed by NPCI.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3, and 4 only
    3. 2 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, and 4

     

    50). The International Big Cat Alliance seeks to conserve which of the following species?

    1. Tiger
    2. Snow Leopard
    3. Jaguar
    4. Puma
    5. Lynx

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
    2. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
    3. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
    4. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only

     

    51). The Vedaranyam Salt Satyagraha (1930) is historically significant because:

    1. It was the first salt satyagraha organized in British India.
    2. It was led by C. Rajagopalachari in the Madras Presidency.
    3. It was conducted parallel to Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March.
    4. It marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement in South India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 2, and 3 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1 and 4 only

     

    52). Which of the following categories of assets are covered under the ‘Your Money, Your Right’ movement?

    1. Unclaimed insurance proceeds
    2. Unpaid dividends
    3. Dormant cryptocurrency wallets
    4. Unclaimed bank deposits

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 4 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    53). Mephedrone, recently in the news, is best described as:

    1. A naturally occurring narcotic derived from opium poppy
    2. A synthetic stimulant classified as a New Psychoactive Substance
    3. A prescription psychotropic drug regulated under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act
    4. A semi-synthetic opioid used in pain management

     

    54). With reference to the Yellow Line reported in the news, consider the following statements:

    1. It is a permanent international boundary recognized under international law.
    2. Areas east of the line are under direct Israeli military operational control.
    3. The demarcation lies entirely along the Gaza–Israel border.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 2 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    55). Assertion (A): Rice cultivation in Punjab and Haryana is largely dependent on irrigation.

    Reason (R): These regions receive rainfall well below the optimal requirement for rice cultivation.

    Choose the correct answer using the code below:

    1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is true, but R is false
    4. A is false, but R is true

     

    56). Consider the following pairs:

    INTERPOL Notice

    Primary Purpose

    1. Red Notice

    Seek arrest of a person wanted for prosecution or to serve a sentence.

    2. Yellow Notice

    Collect information on criminal activities of suspects.

    3. Blue Notice

    Locate missing persons, often minors.

    4. Black Notice

    Seek information on unidentified bodies.

     Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    57). Consider the following events related to India’s freedom struggle, with which Sardar Patel was associated:

    1. Quit India Movement
    2. Bardoli Satyagraha
    3. Kheda Satyagraha
    4. Salt Satyagraha

    Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence?

    1. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1
    2. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
    3. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
    4. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

     

    58). With reference to the Bison Horn Maria Dance, consider the following statements:

    1. It is performed exclusively by men of the Maria tribes of Bastar.
    2. Male dancers wear horn-shaped headgear decorated with bison horns, feathers, and bright cloth strips.
    3. The dance is accompanied by ritual chants invoking deities like Budhadev and Danteshwari Mai.

    How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. Only One Statement
    2. Only Two Statements
    3. All the Three Statements
    4. None of The Above

     

    59). With reference to Geographical Indications in India, consider the following statements:

    1. GI registration in India is governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999.
    2. GI registration for a product provides exclusive marketing rights for the registered product.
    3. The first product to be GI-tagged in India was Ponduru Khadi.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    60). With reference to MahaCrimeOS, consider the following statements:

    1. It is an AI-based policing initiative jointly developed by Microsoft and the Maharashtra Government.
    2. It functions under MARVEL, which stands for Maharashtra Research and Vigilance for Enhanced Law Enforcement.
    3. MahaCrimeOS is a surveillance tool exclusively used for monitoring social media platforms.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    61). What does the term “Lunarcrete” refer to?

    1. A type of concrete made using Martian soil.
    2. A type of concrete made using lunar regolith (Moon soil).
    3. A lunar rover developed for construction purposes.
    4. A space-grade adhesive for spacecraft.

     

    62). Consider the following statements:

    1. Ramman, Kutiyattam, and Mudiyettu are ritual theatre forms.
    2. Chhau dance, Kalbelia, and Sankirtana are ritualistic dance forms.
    3. Yoga, Navroz, and Deepavali are festival or practice-based heritage elements.

    How many of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 3 only
    4. All statements are correct

     

    63). According to the “World Inequality Report”, India’s gender inequality in labor force participation is highlighted by which of the following?

    1. Female labor force participation is around 35% and increasing steadily.
    2. Female labor force participation is very low and stagnant at 15.7%.
    3. Male and female labor force participation rates are almost equal.
    4. Female labor force participation is higher than male in rural areas.

     

    64). According to “Global Environment Outlook” (GEO-7) is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) which of the following statements is correct regarding global health impacts?

    1. Air pollution alone causes millions of premature deaths annually.
    2. Soil and water pollution are negligible compared to air pollution.
    3. Pollution-related deaths are decreasing due to technology.
    4. Pollution affects less than 1 billion people globally.

     

    65). Consider the following about the Assam Movement (1979–1985):

    1. It was led by the Assam Students’ Union (ASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad (AAGSP).
    2. It culminated in the signing of the “Assam Accord’ in 1985.
    3. The Assam Accord aimed to grant Assam independence from India.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. All 1, 2 and 3

     

    66). Which of the following is/are true regarding ADB’s membership?

    1. It includes only Asia-Pacific countries.
    2. Around two-thirds of UNESCAP members participate in ADB.
    3. Developed donor countries outside the region are also members.

    Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    67). Assertion (A): Coral bleaching occurs due to the expulsion of zooxanthellae from coral tissues.

    Reason (R): Coral polyps produce toxins under stress that force the algae to leave.

    Choose the correct answer using the code below:

    1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is true, but R is false
    4. A is false, but R is true

     

    68). Consider the following statements regarding the Western Tragopan:

    1. It is the state bird of Himachal Pradesh.
    2. The species survives in large continuous habitats across the Himalayas.
    3. The IUCN Red List classifies it as Vulnerable.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. All 1, 2 and 3

     

    69). Consider the following statements about private sector participation under the “SHANTI Bill”:

    1. Private companies can participate in atomic mineral exploration.
    2. Private companies can manufacture nuclear equipment and components.
    3. Private companies can manufacture nuclear weapons.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. All 1, 2 and 3

     

    70). The Port of Duqm is situated in:

    1. Northern coast of Oman, overlooking the Persian Gulf.
    2. Southeastern coast of Oman, overlooking the Arabian Sea and Indian Ocean.
    3. Southwestern coast of Oman, near the Red Sea.
    4. Northeastern coast of Oman, near the Gulf of Oman.

     

    71). Assertion (A): The Pax Silica Initiative is strategically important for the global technology sector.

    Reason (R): Silicon is a critical raw material for semiconductor manufacturing and advanced electronics.

    Choose the correct answer using the code below:

    1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is true, but R is false
    4. A is false, but R is true

     

    72). Which of the following risks are covered under the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) Insurance Scheme?

    1. Death due to accidents at the workplace.
    2. Death due to any infectious disease.
    3. Death due to COVID-19 infection only.
    4. All of the above.

     

    73). Which of the following statements about Makhana (Euryale ferox) is/are correct?

    1. It belongs to the water lily family (Nymphaeaceae).
    2. It is a fully organic non-cereal food mainly found in India, Korea, Japan, and parts of eastern Russia.
    3. It requires a temperature range of 15-25°C and annual rainfall below 100 cm.
    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. All 1, 2 and 3

     

    74). Consider the following statements about “Project Suncatcher”:

    1. It is Google’s initiative to build space-based, solar-powered, AI-focused data centers using satellite constellations.
    2. It aims to reduce reliance on terrestrial infrastructure like land, water, and cooling systems.
    3. It involves establishing data centers on the Moon to harness lunar solar energy.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. All 1, 2 and 3

     

    75). The Indian recipients of the “Champions of the Earth Award” a UN’s highest environmental honour, awarded by UNEP include:

    1. Madhav Gadgil
    2. Narendra Modi
    3. Cochin International Airport
    4. Afroz Shah
    5. Supriya Sahu

    How many of the above is/are correct?

    1. 4
    2. 3
    3. 5
    4. 2

     

    76). Which of the following countries does NOT have a coastline along the Gulf of Oman?

    1. Iran
    2. United Arab Emirates
    3. Oman
    4. Saudi Arabia

     

    77). The Blue Nile, a major tributary of the Nile River, originates from:

    1. Lake Victoria
    2. Lake Albert
    3. Lake Tana
    4. Lake Turkana

     

    78). How many of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

    Scheme / Initiative

    Aim/Purpose

    1. ASPIRE Scheme

    Promotion of innovation, skill development and incubation for micro-enterprises.

    2. PMEGP

    Credit-linked subsidy for self-employment through micro-enterprises.

    3. Startup India

    Direct wage employment in government sector.

    4. Yashasvini Campaign

    Empower women entrepreneurs through awareness on formalisation, credit access and mentorship.

     Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. Only One Pair
    2. Only Two Pairs
    3. Only Three Pairs
    4. All are Correctly matched

     

    79). Consider the following statements:

    1. A services trade surplus can exist even when both merchandise and bilateral trade balances are negative.
    2. Reduction in merchandise trade deficit automatically leads to reduction in current account deficit.
    3. A bilateral trade deficit is influenced by trade policy, currency valuation and demand patterns.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    80). The term “Jumping genes” refers to:

    1. Genes that mutate only during cell division
    2. DNA sequences that can change their position within the genome
    3. RNA molecules that move between cells
    4. Proteins involved in chromosome segregation

     

    81). With reference to the AH-64E Apache attack helicopter, consider the following statements:

    1. It is regarded as one of the world’s most advanced multi-role combat helicopters.
    2. It is capable of operating in all-weather and all-terrain conditions.
    3. India’s contract for the AH-64E Apache was signed under a government-to-government agreement with the United States in 2020.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    82). With reference to the Viksit Bharat – Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) Bill, 2025, consider the following statements:

    1. It replaces the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005.
    2. It shifts the rural employment framework from being demand-driven to supply-driven.
    3. It completely abolishes the provision of unemployment allowance.
    4. The scheme is to be implemented as a Centrally Sponsored Scheme. The fund-sharing ratio is uniform across all States and Union Territories.

    How many of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. Only One Statement
    2. Only Two Statements
    3. Only Three Statements
    4. All the statements are correct

     

    83). With reference to the selection committee for appointing the Chief Information Commissioner, consider the following statements:

    1. The Prime Minister is the Chairperson of the selection committee.
    2. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha is a member of the committee.
    3. The Chief Justice of India is also a member of the committee.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    84). Match the following:

    Water Body

    State/UT

    Environmental Feature

    a. Siliserh Lake

    1. Rajasthan

    P. Close to Sariska Tiger Reserve.

    b. Kopra Jalashay

    2. Chhattisgarh

    Q. First Ramsar site in the state.

    c. Loktak Lake

    3. Manipur

    R. Floating phumdis (wetland).

     Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. a-1-P, b-2-Q, c-3-R
    2. a-1-Q, b-2-P, c-3-R
    3. a-1-P, b-2-R, c-3-Q
    4. a-1-R, b-2-P, c-3-Q

     

    85). Consider the following statements regarding the religious and cultural policies of Perumbidugu Mutharaiyar:

    1. He patronized Hindu temples and contributed to Shaivism and Vaishnavism revival.
    2. The period of his rule saw Hinduism revive amid the influence of Jainism and Buddhism.
    3. He promoted Jainism as the state religion under Pallava suzerainty.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    86). Consider the following statements about Jordan:

    1. Jordan is part of the Levant region in West Asia.
    2. It is landlocked except for a short coast on the Red Sea.
    3. The Dead Sea, the lowest point on Earth, lies between Jordan and Palestine.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 2 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    87). Consider the following statements about the UN Alliance of Civilizations (UNAOC):

    1. It was launched in 2005 and was initiated by the Republic of Türkiye and Spain.
    2. Its secretariat is located in Geneva.
    3. It includes improving cross-cultural and inter-religious relations by countering polarisation, extremism, xenophobia, and hate speech.
    4. Promote mutual understanding, inclusion, and peaceful coexistence. Provide military and economic aid to developing nations.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 1 and 4 only

     

    88). Which of the following are provisions of the National Blood Transfusion Bill, 2025?

    1. Mandatory registration of all blood centres across the country.
    2. Introduction of strict penalties for unsafe, unethical, or non-compliant practices.
    3. Promotion of voluntary blood donation through national programs.
    4. Authorization of commercial blood banks to set their own pricing.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1, 3 and 4 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    89). What is DHRUV64?

    1. A satellite launched by ISRO.
    2. A general-purpose microprocessor developed by C-DAC.
    3. A new Indian missile system.
    4. A space telescope.

     

    90). Consider the following statements regarding the National Energy Conservation Awards (NECA), 2025?

    1. Karnataka Renewable Energy Development Limited (KREDL) won the award under the State Energy Efficiency Performance Award (SDA Group-1) category.
    2. It is instituted by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
    3. It is to recognise exemplary performance and encourage in energy efficiency and conservation among States, industries, and institutions.
    4. Only awarded to central government institutions.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 4

     

    91). With reference to international commitments, “Aravalli Green Wall Project” contributes to India’s obligations under:

    1. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
    2. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).
    3. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
    4. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES).

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

     

    92). The “Copenhagen Declaration” focuses on:

    1. Promoting professional leagues.
    2. Anti-doping measures in sports.
    3. Privatization of sports federations.
    4. Organizing international sports tournaments.

     

    93). Consider the following statements about the Pamir Mountains:

    1. The Pamirs are formed by the collision of the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates.
    2. They are also referred to as the “Roof of the World.”
    3. The range lies entirely within Tajikistan.

    Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    94). India acquired “Seahawk helicopters” from which country?

    1. Russia
    2. United States
    3. United Kingdom
    4. France

     

    95). Which of the following statements are correct?

    1. Gallantry awards are announced twice a year, on Republic Day and Independence Day.
    2. Wartime awards are awarded by the Ministry of Defence, while peacetime awards are awarded by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
    3. Param Vir Chakra can be awarded posthumously, but Ashoka Chakra cannot.

    Select the correct answer using the code below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    96). Match the Acts with their primary objectives:

    Acts

    primary objectives

    a. The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956

    1. Prevent child labour and regulate employment conditions.

    b. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986

    2. Prevent trafficking and sexual exploitation.

    c. Bonded Labour System (Abolition) Act, 1976

    3. Protect children from sexual offences.

    d. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012

    4. Abolish bonded labour and provide rehabilitation.

    Options:

    1. a- 2, b- 1, c- 4, d- 3
    2. a- 4, b- 3, c- 1, d- 2
    3. a- 1, b- 2, c- 3, d- 4
    4. a- 3, b- 1, c- 2, d- 4

     

    97). Consider the following statements regarding the Agnipath Scheme:

    1. The scheme allows youth to serve in the Armed Forces for a period of four years as Agniveers.
    2. After four years, all Agniveers are automatically recruited into regular service.
    3. Only personnel below officer ranks are eligible under the scheme.
    4. Provision of skill certificates and bridge courses, mandatory placement in government jobs, support for entrepreneurship and vocational training.

    How many of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

    1. Only One
    2. Only Two
    3. Only Three
    4. All are correct

     

    98). Which of the following institutions supports the promotion, branding, and export of GI-tagged agricultural products like Indi Lime?

    1. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)
    2. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)
    3. NABARD
    4. National Horticulture Board

     

    99). The Arctic tundra is found in:

    1. Alaska, Canada, Greenland, Siberia
    2. Alaska, Antarctica, Greenland, Siberia
    3. Alaska, Canada, Greenland, Antarctica
    4. Alaska, Canada, Antarctica, Siberia

     

    100). Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Port Security (BoPS):

    1. BoPS will be established as a statutory body under the Merchant Shipping Act, 2025.
    2. It will function under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
    3. It will be headed by a Director General of the rank of an IPS officer.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    101). Operation Vijay (1961) was launched to liberate which territories from Portuguese rule?

    1. Goa, Daman, and Diu
    2. Goa only
    3. Daman and Diu only
    4. Pondicherry and Goa

     

    102). Consider the following statements regarding the Securities Markets Code Bill 2025:

    1. The Bill seeks to consolidate the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956, SEBI Act, 1992, and the Depositories Act, 1996.
    2. The SEBI Board’s strength is proposed to be increased from 9 to 15 members, including the Chairperson.
    3. The Reserve Bank of India will appoint the Chairperson of SEBI under the new Bill.

    Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 1 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3

     

    103). The ownership pattern of Regional Rural Banks is:

    1. Government of India 50%, State Government 25%, Sponsor Bank 25%.
    2. Government of India 50%, State Government 15%, Sponsor Bank 35%.
    3. Government of India 60%, State Government 20%, Sponsor Bank 20%.
    4. Government of India 40%, State Government 30%, Sponsor Bank 30%.

     

    104). Apart from monazite, which of the following minerals are commonly found in Indian beach sands?

    1. Ilmenite, rutile, zircon, garnet, sillimanite
    2. Copper, bauxite, chromite, lead
    3. Iron ore, manganese, gold, silver
    4. Coal, limestone, dolomite, feldspar

     

    105). The Ratle Hydroelectric Project is located on which river?

    1. Jhelum
    2. Chenab
    3. Ravi
    4. Indus

     

    106). RESPOND Basket 2025 is an initiative of which organisation?

    1. DRDO
    2. ISRO
    3. NITI Aayog
    4. Department of Science & Technology

     

    NATIONAL AND INTERNATIONAL:

    Key answers

    1) B

    2) C

    3) B

    4) C

    5) C

    6) B

    7) B

    8) A

    9) D

    10) C

    11) B

    12) A

    13) A

    14) B

    15) A

    16) C

    17) A

    18) B

    19) A

    20) C

    21) A

    22) B

    23) C

    24) A

    25) C

    26) A

    27) B

    28) A

    29) C

    30) D

    31) A

    32) B

    33) C

    34) B

    35) A

    36) A

    37) D

    38) D

    39) B

    40) B

    41) C

    42) C

    43) A

    44) A

    45) B

    46) A

    47) C

    48) B

    49) B

    50) A

    51) C

    52) A

    53) B

    54) A

    55) A

    56) C

    57) B

    58) B

    59) A

    60) C

    61) B

    62) D

    63) B

    64) A

    65) B

    66) C

    67) C

    68) A

    69) B

    70) B

    71) A

    72) C

    73) A

    74) B

    75) C

    76) D

    77) C

    78) B

    79) A

    80) B

    81) D

    82) B

    83) A

    84) A

    85) A

    86) B

    87) A

    88) C

    89) B

    90) C

    91) A

    92) B

    93) A

    94) B

    95) C

    96) A

    97) B

    98) B

    99) A

    100) B

    101) A

    102) C

    103) B

    104) A

    105) B

    106) B